Hitler’s desire to occupy Poland doesn’t nullify Poland’s desire to occupy parts of Germany. Neither does Poland’s desire to occupy parts of Germany nullify Hitler’s desire to occupy Poland. They both wanted to fight, and Germany beat Poland.
Germany is the only party that did something. Act. Invade and kill. Every nation would love to conquer the earth or have designs on getting more land. Germany systematically not merely invaded but immediately began killing 3 million Jews living in Poland. Hitler created that situation and it was not war but much worse. It has nothing to do with “desire to be larger and making territorial claims” Its a continental plan to exterminate people, to reduce their education to counting no higher than 50 and perpetual enslavement of anyone not German. Their was no “Allied food blockade” what is was is the same tactic any nation at war with Germany would do on a basic level to fight her using the geography and sea power of England and not to allow imports of war material from nations not at war. Germany is doing that same thing to England with her U-boat campaign and much more successfully. At least Germany can plunder her conquered nations riches. All nations in time of war ration their food, its a basic thing you due to cope with the effects of war. Compared to deaths as a result of war by the effect of military hardware, German deaths by starvation ranks very low, just like English deaths from starvation.
The problem was not that Britain and France were trying to stop Hitler, the problem is that they were trying to stop Hitler because they didn’t want Germany to challenge them power-wise in Europe, while they claimed they had other motives.
If Britain and France declared war on Germany because it was invading Czechoslovakia, Austria, Poland, they would have declared war on the Soviet Union for invading Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland and Finland. They didn’t.
If Britain and France declared war on Germany because it was ostracizing, putting in concentration camps, and killing parts of minority groups of people in their country and countries they invaded, they would have declared war on the Soviet Union for doing the same thing. They didn’t.
No. the problem was the Allies wanted to stop another world war that Hitler caused. What basic facts are you remiss from? The Allies had no treaty with any Baltic States, and with Poland they didn’t have the means to stop Hitler in Poland, but they did help Poland and fund and raise divisions to contribute. And Stalin kept his actions well hidden.Again the Allies didn’t want another war, nobody does except Hitler.
Please explain how civilian bombing raids and food blockades are direct attempts at fighting the enemy. The way I see it is that acts targeting civilians are not direct attempts at fighting the enemy. Civilian bombing raids are clearly aimed at civilians; and as you say later in your post, all nations rationed food so that the soldiers are the first to eat, so any food blockades are also going to hit civilians first. Keep in mind that if you do come up with valid reasons, then while the Allies hold no guilt for their civilian terror raids and food blockade, Germany also holds no guilt for its civilian terror raids on England or its Unrestricted Submarine Warfare.
You need to be explained this? You fight and sap the enemy’s will to fight. Same thing Germany did in the Great War by bombing and terrorizing England with giant Zeppelins dropping bombs, Like the V-weapons, like the German bombing of London, like Germany bombing Rotterdam to ruins…to terrorize people into not having resistance to fight.
So you do agree that the starvation tactics applied against Germany were bad!
Its not starvation tactics, rather the vary basic tactic of denying the enemy of anything of value that he can persecute the war with. Germany could easily surrender and get pancakes back on the tables. But what no allied nation did was start systematically murdering entire groups of people and having some guy on AA.org blame it on the allied “food blockage” in air quotes BTW 75 years latter.
Why do the pictures taken of captured concentration camps at the end of the war show them filled with extremely emaciated people then? And if those that were straight-up killed had just been left to starve, would that absolve Hitler of their deaths in your mind? Why or why not?
You need to be explained this? They were worked to death and fell to death. They were the lucky ones. Most of the others were taken to the “shower” (again air quotes) and killed straight off. Hitler created that situation of course he was responsible- what are you talking about?
Hitler is justifying extermination-
Britain and France gave him this justification with their food blockade. (Whether or not it is a valid justification is a discussion I will abstain from) Had that not happened, there would be no reason for a significant part of certain ethnic and other groups to die under Germany’s control during the war, and if they did the WAllies would have gotten truthful propaganda to justify war against Germany instead of artificially engineered propaganda, but at the risk that Hitler would not engage in these mass murders and leave them without any propaganda.
Hit and run then? This really sinks you. Justification to exterminate due to “food blockade” you got to be ashamed of yourself. Hitler could just surrender the war he directly caused and pancakes would be in supply and Herman could eat his fill. Why not do that? Also, Hitler was killing people since the day he came in power long before any war. You really need to read or have a basic understanding of what happened. Present your ideas to any Historian and he will tell you the facts.
The Nazis destroyed far more food meant for England than anything that could possibly sail to a German port-
If this is the case, it’s because Britain and France could only prevent 100% of the food that Germany would import from going to them, while Britain could attempt to bring in 5x, 10x, whatever the number was; as much food as they could afford to send in in hopes that 100% of what was needed to feed their citizens would make it past the German raids.
Germany still got food and war making material in from Soviet Union, Finland, Sweden, Conquered countries, Bulgaria, Romania, Hungary, etc The only thing the allies cut off was food from South America. Ok so Hitler couldn’t taste Burritos or Tacos for 6 years big deal! If Hitler spent half the time capturing merchant ships as sinking them he would have had Tacos aplenty.
Also, the tactic of repeating “allied food blockade” as defending point to authorize Genocide and to make extermination of entire groups, when these groups were targeted since 1932+ is really weak, especially considering since Hitler controlled most of Europe by conquest and plunder, that simply he could GROW FOOD BY FARMING…HELLO? Germany could end the war and devote her people to farming so again its Hitlers fault, and Goerings for eating up everything in sight to maintain his belly. Allied food blockage is a myth and a talking point that fails.