It’s been reported.
AAG40 FAQ
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France is liberated…what happens to the French territories that were liberated by the Allies (remain that specific ally or go back to French custody?)…mucho appreciado answerito.
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France is liberated…what happens to the French territories that were liberated by the Allies (remain that specific ally or go back to French custody?)…mucho appreciado answerito.
They all revert back to French control. Â The Allies lose them.
Works the same way for any capital liberated - not special for France, btw -
I always found that silly, because nobody ever liberates France. Even the NO for North America isn’t worth it, because if you have say Normandy, Southern France as America (which is very easy to do), you already have 5 IPCs and the minor factories.
Liberate France and you’re not really gaining any IPC, you lose those factories as America, and you give Germany or Italy a good chance at grabbing France’s IPCs with a recapture.
Not sure there’s really a good upside there because you can possibly also have the three French territories in N.Africa very easily for another 3 IPC. At that point you would just be losing IPC, even with the NO.
I do like the France Troop Bonus but 12 IPCs worth of troops really might not be a big enough incentive. Does anyone liberate France in their Global games?
I realize it’s silly to give up 5 IPC, but has anyone played as the Axis and captured France but ignored Normandy and Southern France? Because technically if you never captured them as the Axis then they would remain French, thus the Allies could never land there and “capture” the factories, giving them that foothold in Europe. You’re also denying the Allies that future 5 IPC. You may not be getting that 5 IPC for G2-4, but it’s offset somewhat by the cost of any units you would lose taking those two territories (which I realize isn’t a lot, but it does factor in).
You could either leave the French units or strafe them with aircraft and 1-2 infantry and retreat (risky because you could either take the territory accidentally or lose planes).
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I always found that silly, because nobody ever liberates France. Even the NO for North America isn’t worth it, because if you have say Normandy, Southern France as America (which is very easy to do), you already have 5 IPCs and the minor factories.
Liberate France and you’re not really gaining any IPC, you lose those factories as America, and you give Germany or Italy a good chance at grabbing France’s IPCs with a recapture.
Not sure there’s really a good upside there because you can possibly also have the three French territories in N.Africa very easily for another 3 IPC. At that point you would just be losing IPC, even with the NO.
I do like the France Troop Bonus but 12 IPCs worth of troops really might not be a big enough incentive. Does anyone liberate France in their Global games?
I realize it’s silly to give up 5 IPC, but has anyone played as the Axis and captured France but ignored Normandy and Southern France? Because technically if you never captured them as the Axis then they would remain French, thus the Allies could never land there and “capture” the factories, giving them that foothold in Europe. You’re also denying the Allies that future 5 IPC. You may not be getting that 5 IPC for G2-4, but it’s offset somewhat by the cost of any units you would lose taking those two territories (which I realize isn’t a lot, but it does factor in).
You could either leave the French units or strafe them with aircraft and 1-2 infantry and retreat (risky because you could either take the territory accidentally or lose planes).
I don´t think this is a good move. I´ve once ignored normandy, leaved holland empty, he moved 1 french inf into holland, i attacked it with 2 tanks. the inf hit TWICE my tanks DID NOT HIT AT ALL :x
The allies do not get the factories, but a free foothold without having to fight for it.
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Almost 210 pages of FAQ… That is pretty funny.
On the bright side, every group I played fortress america with had a different interpretation of the rules. At least axis and allies is not there yet, LOL.
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alpha latest ruleset
japanese have an infantry in java.
japanese have a transport in sz37.
australia have 1 sub in sz42 surrounding java.japanese want to load the infantry on the transport.
can japanese load them up in combat?
can japanese load them up in non combat?
does the transport need a warship as an escort?
are there any other rules or operations that need to be followed?thanks for the answers.
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alpha latest ruleset
japanese have an infantry in java.
japanese have a transport in sz37.
australia have 1 sub in sz42 surrounding java.japanese want to load the infantry on the transport.
can japanese load them up in combat?
Yes
can japanese load them up in non combat?
Yes
does the transport need a warship as an escort?
No
are there any other rules or operations that need to be followed?
None
thanks for the answers.
np
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The ONLY time a defending sub causes a problem for transports is when they are in the sea zone where the transport wants to conduct an amphibious assault (unload in a combat move). Â This is why picking up the unit in Java is no problem.
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thanks for your knowledge, dedication, and quick reply gamerman.
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thanks for your knowledge, dedication, and quick reply gamerman.
Anytime allweneed - just doing what I enjoy
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Germany parks a sub in SZ 110 on their turn with no UK destroyer present. UK builds a Destroyer on their turn in 110. On Germany’s next turn does the sub have the option of moving out of that sea zone? Thanks!
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Germany parks a sub in SZ 110 on their turn with no UK destroyer present.�  UK builds a Destroyer on their turn in 110.�  On Germany’s next turn does the sub have the option of moving out of that sea zone?�  Thanks!
Yes. Â It must move out in the combat movement phase, even if it does not move into combat. Â It is one of the instances where a combat move does not have to result in combat (when enemy units are sharing your zone at the beginning of your turn - to escape combat)
If you do NOT move out in the COMBAT MOVEMENT phase, you must conduct combat.
See top of page 13
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Thanks Gamerman! I don’t care what everyone says you are the BEST!
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In the re-release is the setup exactly like A3?
Russia needs to start with a bomber for this game.
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Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct? -
Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct?yes. If Germany captured the final city, and at the start of Germany’s next turn victory conditions are still met, the game is over.
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Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct?Not at the end of a round, but a round after the victory conditions are initially met.
If Italy takes over Egypt for the last city on I12, then the Axis haven’t won until I13, and then only if they never dipped below 8 victory cities between I12 and I13 at any time.
The Axis does not win after France’s round 12 (the end of round 12). -
Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct?Not at the end of a round, but a round after the victory conditions are initially met.
If Italy takes over Egypt for the last city on I12, then the Axis haven’t won until I13, and then only if they never dipped below 8 victory cities between I12 and I13 at any time.
The Axis does not win after France’s round 12 (the end of round 12).hummmm… I suppose I incorrectly thought that if in your example, if UK captured something but Germany captured it back, that the game was still over on I13 as conditions were still met. you’re probably right.
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I’m glad you posted that
I really wasn’t 100% sure because the wording is ambiguous
“The Axis wins by controlling either any 8 victory cities on the Europe map or any 6 victory cities on the Pacific map for a complete round of play, as long as they control an Axis capital at the end of that round”So because it says “for a complete round of play”, then “at the end of that round” must mean at the end of a complete round of play, not after France’s turn…
But this wording does not specify whether you can ever dip below 8 (6) during that complete round.
However, when I previously stated on this thread that the Axis could NOT dip below (because it says you must control 8 (6) cities FOR A COMPLETE ROUND of play) Krieghund never came on and said I was wrong.So the rule is actually that the Axis must MAINTAIN CONSTANT CONTROL of 8 (6) or more cities THROUGHOUT one complete round of play (from G to G, J to J, or I to I) at ALL TIMES.
Note that it wouldn’t have to be the same 8 (6)!
Example:
Axis control Paris, Berlin, Rome, Moscow, Stalingrad, Leningrad, Warsaw.
On I15, the Italians take Egypt (8th city). � The “timer” starts.
On G16, the Germans take London (9th city).
On R16, the Russians liberate Stalingrad (back down to 8.)
On J16, the Japanese take Ottawa (up to 9 again)
On US16, the USA liberates Ottawa (back to 8.)
On UK16, the UK liberates London (Axis down to 7)
On I16, Italy re-captures London (Axis back up to 8.)The Axis HAVEN’T WON yet!
They did not control 8 cities for (throughout) one complete round of play. The “timer” would start all over on I16 again, and the Axis have to maintain 8 cities at all times until I17. If the UK does NOT liberate London or any other city on UK16, then the Axis would win when reaching I16.If I’m wrong, Krieghund should correct this.
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