@genken Might be cool to have a house rule that 1) 1, 2 or 3 the ship is damaged in a way that it moves at half but attacks full or 2) 4, 5, or 6 it is damaged in a what that it moves 2 spaces but attacks with a hit on 1 or 2 vs 4 normally.
AAG40 FAQ
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You are right. If you scramble 1 fighter he has to sink your Subs and he cannot do that with any Air units if he did not bring along a DD. Thisscenario came up recently. Is a good defensive ploy.
Lesson: (for the attacker) buy Destroyers if you are serious about Amphibious landings! -
@wittman:
You are right. If you scramble 1 fighter he has to sink your Subs and he cannot do that with any Air units if he did not bring along a DD. Thisscenario came up recently. Is a good defensive ploy.
Lesson: (for the attacker) buy Destroyers if you are serious about Amphibious landings!Subs could do the trick too. As long as the defending subs don’t sink all attacking subs… Subs are immune to the scramble if there is no DD.
Without a destroyer, the attacker’s aircraft can immediately hit any defending aircraft while attacking non-DD ships can deal with any defending subs
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Does uk and anzac dow on japan seperately should they declare on japan?
Say uk DOWs japan. when anzac’s turn comes does he have to dow japan or is he already at war? In otherwords if a lone destroyer from japan is at java which is owned by anzac sharing a seazone with a transport… If anzac is not yet at war he could pick up an infantry and take celebes, if he is already at war he cannot do this as per hostile sea zone rules.
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Krieg,
I have a question about UK/ANZAC politics.
I am under the assumption that because the “politics hasn’t changes from the box rules”, and because the box rules for Pacific with the errata state that ANZAC/UK are “one” for the purpose of politics, that the following are true:
1. Japan can not declare war on UK and not ANZAC, or ANZAC and not UK. If Japan wants to declare war, it must be on both of them.
2. UK, if it declares war on Japan, causes ANZAC to go to war with Japan too, right there and then. (ie: ANZAC is already at war with Japan before anzac’s turn starts)
3. If ANZAC declares war on Japan, it causes UK to go to war with Japan too, right there and then. (ie: UK is already at war with Japan before uk’s turn starts)
4. If UK declares war on Japan, during ANZAC’s turn ANZAC may not load transports in hostile sea zones, because the war was declared during UK’s turn, not ANZAC’s turn.
Please let me know if these are true,
thx,
veqrynhere is the relevant texts:
Global 3 doc:
A declaration of war by Japan against either the United Kingdom or ANZAC will immediately result in a state of war between Japan and both of those powers.Pacific errata:
The United Kingdom and ANZAC have a special relationship, and they are treated as one for political purposes. Either power is free to declare war on Japan at the beginning of the Combat Move phase of any of its turns, resulting in a state of war between both powers and Japan. -
I really don’t like that they war as a unit… that could lead to some dirty tricks. like uk naval on japan transports then anzac dow… then japan cannot load transport!
But that’s why I always DOW J1.
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@Cow:
Does uk and anzac dow on japan seperately should they declare on japan?
No.
@Cow:
Say uk DOWs japan. when anzac’s turn comes does he have to dow japan or is he already at war? In otherwords if a lone destroyer from japan is at java which is owned by anzac sharing a seazone with a transport… If anzac is not yet at war he could pick up an infantry and take celebes, if he is already at war he cannot do this as per hostile sea zone rules.
ANZAC and Japan are already at war, so the sea zone is hostile and the transport can’t load.
Please let me know if these are true,
They are.
You guys playing a game together? :wink:
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If the US doesn’t control Central America at the beginning of it’s turn but takes it back during combat, can US naval units in SZ64 move through Panal Canal during non-combat to SZ91? Need a quick answer on this! Thanks!
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If the US doesn’t control Central America at the beginning of it’s turn but takes it back during combat, can US naval units in SZ64 move through Panal Canal during non-combat to SZ91? Need a quick answer on this! Thanks!
No. You have to control all canals at the start of your turn! Suez Canal, Straits of Gibraltar, Danish Straits (might be wrong name there) and Panama Canal are all the same.
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France is liberated…what happens to the French territories that were liberated by the Allies (remain that specific ally or go back to French custody?)…mucho appreciado answerito.
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France is liberated…what happens to the French territories that were liberated by the Allies (remain that specific ally or go back to French custody?)…mucho appreciado answerito.
They all revert back to French control. Â The Allies lose them.
Works the same way for any capital liberated - not special for France, btw -
I always found that silly, because nobody ever liberates France. Even the NO for North America isn’t worth it, because if you have say Normandy, Southern France as America (which is very easy to do), you already have 5 IPCs and the minor factories.
Liberate France and you’re not really gaining any IPC, you lose those factories as America, and you give Germany or Italy a good chance at grabbing France’s IPCs with a recapture.
Not sure there’s really a good upside there because you can possibly also have the three French territories in N.Africa very easily for another 3 IPC. At that point you would just be losing IPC, even with the NO.
I do like the France Troop Bonus but 12 IPCs worth of troops really might not be a big enough incentive. Does anyone liberate France in their Global games?
I realize it’s silly to give up 5 IPC, but has anyone played as the Axis and captured France but ignored Normandy and Southern France? Because technically if you never captured them as the Axis then they would remain French, thus the Allies could never land there and “capture” the factories, giving them that foothold in Europe. You’re also denying the Allies that future 5 IPC. You may not be getting that 5 IPC for G2-4, but it’s offset somewhat by the cost of any units you would lose taking those two territories (which I realize isn’t a lot, but it does factor in).
You could either leave the French units or strafe them with aircraft and 1-2 infantry and retreat (risky because you could either take the territory accidentally or lose planes).
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I always found that silly, because nobody ever liberates France. Even the NO for North America isn’t worth it, because if you have say Normandy, Southern France as America (which is very easy to do), you already have 5 IPCs and the minor factories.
Liberate France and you’re not really gaining any IPC, you lose those factories as America, and you give Germany or Italy a good chance at grabbing France’s IPCs with a recapture.
Not sure there’s really a good upside there because you can possibly also have the three French territories in N.Africa very easily for another 3 IPC. At that point you would just be losing IPC, even with the NO.
I do like the France Troop Bonus but 12 IPCs worth of troops really might not be a big enough incentive. Does anyone liberate France in their Global games?
I realize it’s silly to give up 5 IPC, but has anyone played as the Axis and captured France but ignored Normandy and Southern France? Because technically if you never captured them as the Axis then they would remain French, thus the Allies could never land there and “capture” the factories, giving them that foothold in Europe. You’re also denying the Allies that future 5 IPC. You may not be getting that 5 IPC for G2-4, but it’s offset somewhat by the cost of any units you would lose taking those two territories (which I realize isn’t a lot, but it does factor in).
You could either leave the French units or strafe them with aircraft and 1-2 infantry and retreat (risky because you could either take the territory accidentally or lose planes).
I don´t think this is a good move. I´ve once ignored normandy, leaved holland empty, he moved 1 french inf into holland, i attacked it with 2 tanks. the inf hit TWICE my tanks DID NOT HIT AT ALL :x
The allies do not get the factories, but a free foothold without having to fight for it.
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Almost 210 pages of FAQ… That is pretty funny.
On the bright side, every group I played fortress america with had a different interpretation of the rules. At least axis and allies is not there yet, LOL.
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alpha latest ruleset
japanese have an infantry in java.
japanese have a transport in sz37.
australia have 1 sub in sz42 surrounding java.japanese want to load the infantry on the transport.
can japanese load them up in combat?
can japanese load them up in non combat?
does the transport need a warship as an escort?
are there any other rules or operations that need to be followed?thanks for the answers.
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alpha latest ruleset
japanese have an infantry in java.
japanese have a transport in sz37.
australia have 1 sub in sz42 surrounding java.japanese want to load the infantry on the transport.
can japanese load them up in combat?
Yes
can japanese load them up in non combat?
Yes
does the transport need a warship as an escort?
No
are there any other rules or operations that need to be followed?
None
thanks for the answers.
np
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The ONLY time a defending sub causes a problem for transports is when they are in the sea zone where the transport wants to conduct an amphibious assault (unload in a combat move). Â This is why picking up the unit in Java is no problem.
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thanks for your knowledge, dedication, and quick reply gamerman.
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thanks for your knowledge, dedication, and quick reply gamerman.
Anytime allweneed - just doing what I enjoy
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Germany parks a sub in SZ 110 on their turn with no UK destroyer present. UK builds a Destroyer on their turn in 110. On Germany’s next turn does the sub have the option of moving out of that sea zone? Thanks!
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