Not sure if you are in a position to answer this one, but what was the rationale behind not allowing Germany to move from a contested territory to an Austrian-controlled territory but allowing them to move from a contested territory to another contested territory that happens to have 1 (or more) German(s) there?
For example, let’s say Austria takes switzerland turn 1. Germany moves in.
Turn 2, Germany moves out into burgundy, contesting it, leaving 1 unit behind in switzerland. Italy moves in and contests Switzerland, the German inf there survives.
Turn 3, Scenario 1: Austria does not attack in switzerland, it remains contested with 1 Germ inf, Germany can move from contested burgundy to switzerland because it is contested.
Turn 3, Scenario 2: Austria attacks in switzerland, and wipes out the Italians. Austria takes control since it was the attacker. Germany CANNOT move from contested Burgundy to Switzerland, even though they still have an inf there.
That makes little sense to me. I suppose the rationale could be something about lack of coordination between allies, but that seems a little weak, especially since allied troops defend with each other at full strength and can in fact even boost each other.
It seems like what would logically open up an avenue for an ally’s retreat does the total opposite. You’re allowed to move where it would logically be harder to move and not allowed to move where it would be logically easier.
I am not saying there is no good reason why you can’t move into an allied-controlled territory from a contested, I am saying that I haven’t seen it yet if there is one. At the very least you should be able to if you have 1 land unit in the friendly territory you want to move into. That would remove potential issues like Germany being in contested Poland, Austria attacking and winning in Ukraine, and Germany moving through to Ukraine.
Also from page 14 of this thread: “You may not move land units out of a contested territory into an adjacent territory that you made contested in the same turn. The destination territory must have already been contested at the beginning of your turn.”
Let’s say Austria is contesting Burgundy, Germany is contesting Lorraine, and Germany has 1 inf in switzerland. If Germany moves the 1 inf to Burgundy, can they then move the Lorraine troops there too? (Page 15, 3rd paragraph of rules suggest no, I just think it would be helpful to clarify that being contested is not enough for that, it has to have already been contested with units of your power.)