On page 64 of this FAQ thread, Krieghund gave this answer:
I can only find in the rule book that the Allies who are not at war with Japan can not fly over China
without declaring war (is considered an act of war by Japan)
But Japan can fly over UK/French territories before they are at war with UK (or France), correct?
Yes.
I don’t understand this answer: why is Japan allowed to fly over the territories of countries with which it is not yet at war?
P40 p.8 says:
“All territories exist in one of three conditions:
Friendly: Controlled by you or a friendly power.
Hostile: Controlled by a power with which you are at war.
Neutral: Not controlled by any power, or controlled by a power on the other side with which you are not yet at war (see “The Political Situation,” below).”
Is it because of this statement:
“The United Kingdom and ANZAC have a special relationship, and they are treated as one for political purposes. They are both at war with Japan’s allies, Germany and Italy, on the other side of the world, so they are not completely neutral.”
And . . .
"France’s capital has been captured by Germany. As a result, French territories are treated in the same way as any Allied territories whose capital is held by an enemy power (see “Liberating a Territory,” page 20).
And p. 28:
“Air units can move through hostile territories and sea zones as if they were friendly.”
And p. 36:
“Germany, Japan, and Italy make up the Axis. For the moment, the United Kingdom (including Canada), ANZAC, France, and China make up the Allies. The United States and the Soviet Union are neutral. During this period, many other countries tried to remain neutral as well. As the war became global, many neutrals were forced to join one side or the other.”
Or is there some other governing rule?