Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)

OK, yes the cruiser/battleship must be in the same zone as at least one of the offloading transports.  You can actually bombard in the following manner:

Attack West Germany from 112 and 113
From 112 you have 2 battleships and a cruiser, and offload 1 infantry from a transport
From 113 you have a cruiser and offload 4 infantry.

You can bombard with both cruisers and both battleships because
a) there is at least one transport offloading from each zone and
b) there are 4 or more (5 in my example) ground units in total offloading

This one surprised me, but we have access to one of the main rulebook writers here on this site, and I learned this from him.

So I think you just wanted to know if the cruiser/battleship had to be in the same zone as the transport(s) and the answer to that is yes.

Sounds ridiculous. The rules state:

If there was NOT a combat in the sea zone from which you
are offloading units from transports, any accompanying
battleships and cruisers in that sea zone can conduct a one-time
bombardment of one coastal territory or island group being
attacked. The number of ships that can make bombardment
attacks is limited to 1 ship per land unit being offloaded
from the transports in that coastal territory. If more than one
territory is being assaulted from the same sea zone and there
are multiple battleships and/or cruisers, each ship may support
only one assault. However, the ships’ bombardment may
be split in any way that the attacker chooses, so long as the
number of ships supporting each assault doesn’t exceed the
number of seaborne land units in that assault. Choosing to
destroy enemy transports or attacking enemy submarines in
step 1 (above), counts as a combat and prevents the battleship
and cruiser bombardment from taking place.

It also opens a loophole that a battleship can conduct sea combat in zone 113 then bombard West Germany if an infantry is unloaded from zone 112.

But the rule says “any accompanying battleships and cruisers in that sea zone,” so that loophole doesn’t exist.

@simon33:

It also opens a loophole that a battleship can conduct sea combat in zone 113 then bombard West Germany if an infantry is unloaded from zone 112.

No, maybe I wasn’t clear enough.  I never said a cruiser or battleship could conduct sea combat and also bombard.  Was only trying to explain multiple zone offloading and bombardment

My understanding is that if your invasion fleet has to engage in naval combat first, before it can offload troops, then the land-combat phase does not get the benefit of the shore-bombardment. Technically the transport would be offloading while the Cruisers, etc engage in combat with enemy naval forces.

You’re exactly right.
I never said anything about naval combat.  The obvious assumption was that there was none, like in my example of 113 and 112

So for amphibian assaults can you move a tank into a transport and then right onto land because it has 2 moves or is that a no no  :? :? :?

:-) I can help you with that.

Forget about the 2 moves.  Infantry, artillery, mech, tanks, they all can load onto a transport that is in a sea zone adjacent to the territory the land unit started in, and be transported, and then unload onto a land territory as amphibious assault all in the same turn.

In other words, the movement points (1 or 2) is purely for movement across land.  It’s not a movement point to get on a transport and another movement point to get off.

Note that even though mech and tanks have 2 movement, they can’t move one territory, and then jump on a transport.

@Gamerman01:

@simon33:

It also opens a loophole that a battleship can conduct sea combat in zone 113 then bombard West Germany if an infantry is unloaded from zone 112.

No, maybe I wasn’t clear enough.  I never said a cruiser or battleship could conduct sea combat and also bombard.  Was only trying to explain multiple zone offloading and bombardment

I understood. I still think that is a ridiculous interpretation of the rules.

thank you for the clarification of anphibious assults  :-D :-D :-D

in global does the us get a pacific war bonus and a European war bonus or just one?

@simon33:

I understood. I still think that is a ridiculous interpretation of the rules.

Krieghund the rulebook writer reads everything in this thread……  :-D

@generalTrible:

thank you for the clarification of anphibious assults  :-D :-D :-D

Sure, I enjoy it!

in global does the us get a pacific war bonus and a European war bonus or just one?

Ah, neither of the special bonuses that are in the theater games.  The USA gets the NO’s that are listed in the Global rules which are at the end of the Europe rulebook.

what are the NOs for global

http://media.wizards.com/2015/downloads/ah/AA_europe_1940_rules.pdf

You should be able to find the Pacific rulebook from this too - go to Wizards of the Coast website

You should be able to find the Pacific rulebook from this too - go to Wizards of the Coast website

thank you :)

so lets say some chinese troops in burma what happens when lets say yunnan gets taken can the troops still stay in burma or do they go to yunnan or can they stay in burma?

sorry for all the questions im not a noob i just like to make sure lol :-D :-D :-D

Chinese troops can sit wherever they want in China, Burma, or Hong Kong, indefinitely…… no obligations to protect anything…

This should hopefully be my last round of questions. Played a few turns in a few different games over the weekend so have a few final questions.

1. Can attacking aircraft land in a newly conquered territory/the territory they are attacking if it is conquered?

2. If the last round of combat ends with both defender and attacker dead - IE no units left - I assume the defender retains control of the territory?

3. In the case of Germany attacking Yugoslavia from Southern Germany, they can ‘retreat’ all units into (say) Romania if one unit from Romania attacks. If you get extremely lucky with your dice roll and wipe out all the defenders, can you still retreat (and leave Yugoslavia as a pro-allies neutral with no army) or do you have to move all attacking armies into the province? IE can you leave the province empty so that Italy can move in and take control (and retreat your armies to Romania) or do you have to occupy it with all forces?

4. Neutrals - I am still a little confused on neutrals.

IF Germany moves from Norway into Finland, no combat takes place as Finland is pro-axis, so the Finnish troops turn into German troops, correct?

CAN Russia, while not at war, move into Pro-Allies Neutrals (like Persia)? Or do they have to wait until they are at war to do so?

NEUTRAL-neutrals, like Sweden, cause all the other neutral-neutrals to turn pro-allies (if the Axis attack) or pro-axis (if the Allies attack). The Axis (or Allies, depending on the case) can then just move troops into those neutral-neutrals to gain their units, correct?

1. No.
2. Yes.
3. Yes, if at least one defender survives. But  If no defenders remain, the Attacker must stay in the newly conquered territory with all the ground units that attacked.
4. Yes, Germany can claim Finland’s Inf by moving in in Non Combat.
Russia must be at war.
True Neutrals: correct.
But to claim the territory,you must move in a combat (not AA) Ground unit.

More of a personal question this time…

Does it make any sense for UK/ANZAC to DOW Japan on UK 1? I assume they’re allowed to it, but that prevents the US from entering the war (physically) until US 4. And the UK doesn’t have much of an attack on UK 1 so it seems rather silly (yet my friend did this for some reason).