Regarding SZ 110, I got hosed one time on a UK scramble. Usually as Germany, I send 3 fighters, 3 Stukas, 1 bombers and sometimes 1 sub to SZ 110. Our UK player had gotten in the habit of not scrambling in order to save the RAF for future action.
Well, this one game I made the mistake of just assuming UK would not scramble. I sent 2 fighters, 2 Stukas and 1 bomber to SZ 110. The other fighter and Stuka I sent to kill the French fleet in SZ 93. Well, UK taught me a lesson. They scrambled and wiped out my planes. I didn’t even kill all the ships in the channel.
Never made that mistake again.
AAG40 FAQ
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Can a transport with 2 inf on it choose to only offload 1 inf to take or attack a territory?
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sure.
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The Europe rulebook is indecisive in their wording about it, while the pacific rulebook says you must offload everything.
Thing is I have units from anzac on an american transport so we want to unload 1 unit only… which I thought was legit… till it got questioned.
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@Cow:
The Europe rulebook is indecisive in their wording about it, while the pacific rulebook says you must offload everything.
Thing is I have units from anzac on an american transport so we want to unload 1 unit only… which I thought was legit… till it got questioned.
It depends on when the units were loaded. If it’s a combat move and the units are loaded during the combat phase, then all units that loaded MUST unload (in general, you cannot move a unit as a combat move unless it results in combat - exceptions to naval & scrambling, but that’s it). That also means the unit MUST amphibiously assault - it unload in a friendly territory, and if you didn’t have a hostile territory to unload it into, it wasn’t permitted to be loaded in the first place.
If one of the units was loaded during a previous noncombat, and one was loaded during combat, then the one loaded during combat MUST amphibiously assault. The one that was already aboard may unload as a combat move, but if it does not it cannot unload at all during noncombat (as the transport was used during combat).
If both were loaded during noncombat and are both being unloaded during noncombat, then it’s up to you. But they cannot unload to two different territories.
In your case, both were loaded as a noncombat in a previous turn. One or both may be unloaded to amphibiously assault, but once one unloads during combat, the second is not permitted to unload during noncombat.
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@Cow:
The Europe rulebook is indecisive in their wording about it, while the pacific rulebook says you must offload everything.
Thing is I have units from anzac on an american transport so we want to unload 1 unit only… which I thought was legit… till it got questioned.
I think I know where the confusion is coming from…
If you load units on a transport in the combat movement phase, you CAN’T drop only one, you have to drop both.
So if you have an ANZ unit or two on an American transport, then you can always unload only one in the ANZ combat movement phase, because the ANZ unit(s) was(were) NOT loaded during that combat movement phase (had to have been in a previous round)
Anyway, here’s the rule verbatim from page 30 - I think you’ll find it quite clear:
“During an amphibious assault, a transport must either offload all units that were loaded during the Combat Move phase or retreat during sea combat. Â It can also offload any number of units owned by the transport’s power that were already on board at the start of the turn.”It specifies “by the transport’s power” because OTHER powers can ALWAYS do a partial offload (because again, they would have never been loaded during that combat movement phase because it’s not allowed to bridge on and off an ally’s transport all on the same turn)
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kcd and I were answering the question at the same time, as it happens
It should be helpful to read both answers.
I did not read kcd’s reply when writing up mine. -
This is all a vast conspiracy against me!
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Careful Garg: you are beginning to sound Italian!
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You plan an amphib assault. But you have a Naval battle before hand on the coast protecting your target. On your CV that you take into battle you have launched a FTR to use in the amphib assault and not the naval battle. You win the naval battle, but you lose the CV. Can the FTR still participate in the amphib knowing I will have to now take as a loss or do I have to take it immediately (even though technically the FTR is launched prior to the battle?)?
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You plan an amphib assault. But you have a Naval battle before hand on the coast protecting your target. On your CV that you take into battle you have launched a FTR to use in the amphib assault and not the naval battle. You win the naval battle, but you lose the CV. Can the FTR still participate in the amphib knowing I will have to now take as a loss or do I have to take it immediately (even though technically the FTR is launched prior to the battle?)?
During the combat move phase, the fighter moves to the territory that you will amphibiously assault. Fighters move independently of carriers. That fighter will participate in combat during your combat phase. In fact, if you had lost the naval battle and the transports needed to retreat or were sunk, your fighter would still participate in at least one round of combat against the territory.
The loss of the fighter is not taken until the end of the noncombat phase, at which point if it did not have a valid landing space, it is removed from the board.
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If I had to retreat with the Transports, can I unload them back in the NCM phase?
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Can an axis country VC win with its capital being occupied by the allies? Example: Can Japan VC in in the pac while his capital is american controlled? I know this sounds unlikely.
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What goes poof on china territories and what does not go poof?
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@Cow:
What goes poof on china territories and what does not go poof?
IC’s are removed from play, as they cannot be used by China or its allies while controlled by China. Naval bases and Air bases remain in play, as they can be used by the allies while controlled by china.
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Can an axis country VC win with its capital being occupied by the allies?�  Example: Can Japan VC in in the pac while his capital is american controlled?�  I know this sounds unlikely.
Yes. Â Because the rule says the Axis must only control an Axis capital (Berlin, Rome, or Tokyo) at the end of that round. The rule does NOT specify that you must control the Axis capital that is on the side the Axis is winning.
Keep in mind the Axis must have controlled 6 or more cities throughout an entire round of play, so if that does not include Tokyo the Axis must have had 6 or 7 of the other 7 cities constantly throughout a full round of play.
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full round as in 1 round since when u conquered it, not untill the end of france’s turn.
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That is right. If Germany captured the 6th VC city on the Pacific map on G10, then as long as you maintained 6 VP citiesim the Pacific until your G11 go, you have won. Is not after France’s go.
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This one is a little complex and I think I have it right but I want to make sure.
USA has 4 ftrs, 2 carrier, 1 transport that can make it to SZ 6 and 2 infantry to land on Japan.
Japan in Sea Zone 6 has 1 sub, 1 transport, 1 Destroyer
USA rolls 3 hits with his ftrs. Japan must select destroyer and transport. Sub is ineligible. This leaves a sub for Japan.
1. Now, USA cannot unload the transport (unless Japan for some reason submerges the sub), even though it is there with a combat ship and the only unit left is a sub, since a battle was started and eventually Japan would roll enough 1’s to kill all American ships?
2. Now, let’s say there is no destroyer in SZ and everything else is the same. Could USA then unload in Japan without going to battle? (My guess: Can unload)
3. If Japan scrambled 1 ftr? (My guess: Can’t unload)
4. If Japan did a Kamikaze? (My guess: Can unload).Thanks for any clarification.
PS: I am not just looking for the most complex situation I can think of, situation 1 is exactly what is going on in a game right now lol.
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This one is a little complex and I think I have it right but I want to make sure.
USA has 4 ftrs, 2 carrier, 1 transport that can make it to SZ 6 and 2 infantry to land on Japan.
Japan in Sea Zone 6 has 1 sub, 1 transport, 1 Destroyer
USA rolls 3 hits with his ftrs. Japan must select destroyer and transport. Sub is ineligible. This leaves a sub for Japan.
1. Now, USA cannot unload the transport (unless Japan for some reason submerges the sub), even though it is there with a combat ship and the only unit left is a sub, since a battle was started and eventually Japan would roll enough 1’s to kill all American ships?
Right. Going into the battle, there is no way the transport will be able to unload because the destroyer cannot be ignored and the sub cannot be destroyed. The Japanese player has no logical reason to submerge. (Unless they want to be taken over by the USA instead of ANZAC or UK or something :lol:)
2. Now, let’s say there is no destroyer in SZ and everything else is the same. Could USA then unload in Japan without going to battle? (My guess: Can unload)
You’re right, because the carrier works to escort the transport. Without the carriers, the sub would block the amphibious assault (unescorted transport).
3. If Japan scrambled 1 ftr? (My guess: Can’t unload)
Right. Fighter forces battle just as the destroyer in scenario #1, so sub is invincible and is in combat (can’t be ignored).
4. If Japan did a Kamikaze? (My guess: Can unload).
Kamikazes stop bombardment. I’m pretty sure (not 100%) a single kamikaze prevents the USA from ignoring the sub, meaning the land units will not be able to unload (again, because the sub in this scenario is invincible) because there is now combat. Â But then, there IS a destroyer there in your game, so you don’t have to worry about this right now, do you?
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