If you’re not at war with a power, its ships don’t block your ships’ movement.
I don’t believe this was already discussed if so my apologies. Sea Zone 10 does not connect to anything on the other side of the map does it?
While at war with ONLY Japan can Russia take “pro allied” or attack “pro axis” neutrals?
Thanks
I don’t believe this was already discussed if so my apologies. Sea Zone 10 does not connect to anything on the other side of the map does it?
Look at page 32 in the rulebook.
While at war with ONLY Japan can Russia take “pro allied” or attack “pro axis” neutrals?
Thanks
Yes, it was stated recently on this thread, actually.
I’m not sure if these questions have been addressed already, and if they have, I’m sorry!
In the global game and in AAE40, if a power is knocked out of the game, is it possible that their allies can take over their remaining territories? Say for example France and the UK (Europe) are both taken out by Germany; can the American player take control of their African territories before the Italian player takes them? Also, can the UK Pacific player still take control of French Indo China before the Japanese like it could in AAP40? Or, must we wait for our opponents to take a territory before we can ‘liberate’ it and add it to our surviving powers income?
My second question… What is the purpose of the Canadian roundels on the map? The rule book doesn’t seem to say anything about them. I assume the Canadian territories contribute to the UK’s income, so why complicate things with the different symbols?
Thanks guys.
I’m not sure if these questions have been addressed already, and if they have, I’m sorry!
In the global game and in AAE40, if a power is knocked out of the game, is it possible that their allies can take over their remaining territories? Say for example France and the UK (Europe) are both taken out by Germany; can the American player take control of their African territories before the Italian player takes them? Also, can the UK Pacific player still take control of French Indo China before the Japanese like it could in AAP40? Or, must we wait for our opponents to take a territory before we can ‘liberate’ it and add it to our surviving powers income?
My second question… What is the purpose of the Canadian roundels on the map? The rule book doesn’t seem to say anything about them. I assume the Canadian territories contribute to the UK’s income, so why complicate things with the different symbols?
Thanks guys.
The roundels are for tracking India’s income on the Production chart in Global.
You may only Liberate (take back control from the other side) your allies territories and gain the production if their capital is in enemy hands. See page 20 AAEurope 1940 second paragraph “Liberating a Territory” first line: “If the original controller’s (country whose territory you just liberated) capital is in enemy hands at the end of the turn in which you would otherwise have liberated the territory, you capture the territory, you adjust your national production level, and you can use any antiaircraft gun, industiral complex, air base, and naval base there until the original controller’s capital is liberated.”
You would not be able to just move into allied controlled territories and grab them. Your opponent has to have captured them first in order to gain control when you take them back.
Note:This is not an official answer, just trying to help out.
Also, can the UK Pacific player still take control of French Indo China before the Japanese like it could in AAP40?
No. UK can’t do it in Pacific, either. See the FAQ.
My second question… What is the purpose of the Canadian roundels on the map? The rule book doesn’t seem to say anything about them. I assume the Canadian territories contribute to the UK’s income, so why complicate things with the different symbols?
They are indeed part of the UK’s income. They are there simply to recognize Canada’s contribution to the Allied war effort.
I don’t believe this was already discussed if so my apologies. Sea Zone 10 does not connect to anything on the other side of the map does it?
Look at page 32 in the rulebook.
Does not say anything about sea zone 10.
I don’t believe this was already discussed if so my apologies. Sea Zone 10 does not connect to anything on the other side of the map does it?
Look at page 32 in the rulebook.Does not say anything about sea zone 10.
Which means it doesn’t connect to the other board
French IPC question
First, my apologies if something like this has already been discussed. A situation occurred in my last game that I’d like clarification on if anyone can shed some light.
US player takes Normandy. German and Italy could not take it back on their turn. Britain reinforces on their turn. On the next US turn, it is assumed that the US player can build 3 at the minor IC in Normandy as France is still under German control. Here’s the issue, US attacks France and wins. At that point, France is liberated and the Normandy IC can no longer be considered US and therefore cannot be built out of. Is that correct?
And now it even gets more confusing. The Germans take back France their next turn (even with the 4 extra french INF) which then reverts Normandy back to US. But, there are now only UK troops in Normandy. Who gets Normandy and could UK or US then build out of it on their turn after Germany has taken France back?
I realize this is complicated, but someone must have been through this scenario before.
Thanks for your time.
French IPC question
First, my apologies if something like this has already been discussed. A situation occurred in my last game that I’d like clarification on if anyone can shed some light.
US player takes Normandy. German and Italy could not take it back on their turn. Britain reinforces on their turn. On the next US turn, it is assumed that the US player can build 3 at the minor IC in Normandy as France is still under German control. Here’s the issue, US attacks France and wins. At that point, France is liberated and the Normandy IC can no longer be considered US and therefore cannot be built out of. Is that correct?
And now it even gets more confusing. The Germans take back France their next turn (even with the 4 extra french INF) which then reverts Normandy back to US. But, there are now only UK troops in Normandy. Who gets Normandy and could UK or US then build out of it on their turn after Germany has taken France back?
I realize this is complicated, but someone must have been through this scenario before.
Thanks for your time.
If Germany retakes France, Normandy remains French, just like Madagascar remains French once France is taken on G1.
As for the 1st question, I think you can’t build, and I believe that’s the only situation where you’d build more than you have slots available
Thanks Calvin. Still a little confused though. If UK is currently occupying Normandy when France is taken back by Germany, would that allow UK to build there? They have been occupying for a full turn.
Thanks Calvin. Still a little confused though. If UK is currently occupying Normandy when France is taken back by Germany, would that allow UK to build there? They have been occupying for a full turn.
Calvin’s right, first of all.
No, UK couldn’t build there.
Here’s the deal. You can only control a territory (and build there) that was originally one of your Ally’s when YOU TAKE IT OVER WHEN the capital is currently under enemy control. If Germany takes Paris back, the French territories STAY FRENCH. It’s when the Allies liberate Paris that all French original territories pop back to being French again, and the Allies can no longer build on those factories (that are on original French ground).
Now I think I understand! Because France was liberated, Normandy is now French and until an Axis takes the territory it will remain French. Therefore, although UK is there, they do not get the IPCs.
I guess the moral of the story is when you do liberate France, you better make sure you can hold it for a bunch of reasons.
Thanks to you both.
Quick question on aircraft overflight: can planes overfly an enemy country’s territory before war is declared during either combat moves or noncombat moves? E.g. can a Japanese plane overfly a British territory before these two countries are at war or does the overflight trigger/require a declaration of war? Thanks!
Quick question on aircraft overflight: can planes overfly an enemy country’s territory before war is declared during either combat moves or noncombat moves? E.g. can a Japanese plane overfly a British territory before these two countries are at war or does the overflight trigger/require a declaration of war? Thanks!
No. [Edit: see official response a few posts down]
See page 15 AA Europe rulebook blue side box labeled “Powers That Begin the Game Neutral”, second paragraph, second sentence “…, nor can another power move land or air units into its territories or onto its ships…”
Quick question on aircraft overflight: can planes overfly an enemy country’s territory before war is declared during either combat moves or noncombat moves? E.g. can a Japanese plane overfly a British territory before these two countries are at war or does the overflight trigger/require a declaration of war? Thanks!
No.
See page 15 AA Europe rulebook blue side box labeled “Powers That Begin the Game Neutral”, second paragraph, second sentence “…, nor can another power move land or air units into its territories or onto its ships…”
Well, he’s asking about flying over a territory, which I think you can do, but I’m not certain
Foreign air units, friendly or otherwise, may not fly over the territories or land on the carriers of a power that is neutral (not at war with anyone). A neutral power’s air units may not fly over territories or land on carriers that do not belong to it. Allied air units belonging to powers not at war with Japan may not fly over original Chinese territories (regardless of who currently controls them). No air units may fly over neutral territories, unless it is to attack them. Any other movement of air units is allowed.
To answer Jmite’s specific question, a Japanese plane may fly over a UK territory (and vice versa) in either combat or noncombat movement before they’re at war with each other, because neither Japan nor UK is neutral. Japan is at war with (at least) China, and UK is at war with Germany and Italy.
Foreign air units, friendly or otherwise, may not fly over the territories or land on the carriers of a power that is neutral (not at war with anyone). A neutral power’s air units may not fly over territories or land on carriers that do not belong to it.
Wow. Thanks for asking the question, Jmite, I hadn’t thought about this situation yet.
In summary, the only powers that start the game neutral are USSR and USA. So these powers can not fly over any non-USSR or USA territories until at war with an Axis power, and Allies cannot fly over USSR or USA territories until USSR or USA is at war with an Axis power.
Foreign air units, friendly or otherwise, may not fly over the territories or land on the carriers of a power that is neutral (not at war with anyone). A neutral power’s air units may not fly over territories or land on carriers that do not belong to it.
Wow. Thanks for asking the question, Jmite, I hadn’t thought about this situation yet.
In summary, the only powers that start the game neutral are USSR and USA. So these powers can not fly over any non-USSR or USA territories until at war with an Axis power, and Allies cannot fly over USSR or USA territories until USSR or USA is at war with an Axis power.
You forgot China
Sorry about that, I believed UK was neutral to Japan until a declaration of war. So in Global they can because they are at war with an ally who is at war with them. I guess they can’t in just Pacific since they are neutral in that version?
