Axis and Allies 1914 FAQ/Question and Answer Thread

Krieghund when you get asked a question that is clearly in the rulebook do you ask yourself if the person even read the rulebook? or have you just gotten used to silly questions sometimes?

THIS IS NOT ABOUT ANY QUESTION ON THIS TREAD OR FORUM. IT’S ME WONDERING.

While I agree that the rulebook need a good going over before asking, that rulebook is not well organized.  And an index would do wonders.

Why question is a general question not something about a specific game. and I’m talking about questions like “I read the rulebook and can’t find it what are all the dice for?” type question.

@Flashman:

If a German cruiser moves into SZ1 when USA is still neutral but then attacks an American ship there in the combat phase does it have to roll for mines retrospectively?

KH: No

But if the Cruiser was accompanied by a loaded transport and you intended to invade America you’d have to declare the intention in advance, so this would make it in effect an act of war and activate the minefield, yes?

Yes.

Why would it make a difference if the land was being attacked or not? Doesn’t Germany have to declare war at the beginning of its turn (like in all the other games that have neutral powers). This would be before the movement phase so this should render all US units hostel, including their mined sz’s.

No.  There are no “declarations of war” in this game.  The US is only brought into the war before its fourth turn if a hostile act (as detailed in the rules) is committed against it.  Unlike a sea attack, an amphibious assault must be announced during the movement phase.

@cond1024:

After reading the Kriegs answers thread I had a question about this post:
"Q.
If France moves into Spanish Morroco on Turn 1, no units activate, since it’s a colony, correct? I’m pretty sure the answer is yes but just making sure.

A.
Correct."

1. So America can basically walk into Spanish Morroco and gain the 1 IPC without having to fight anything?
…

@Krieghund:

1.  Yes.
…

This is not how I understand the rules. Morocco is a British colony and thus can’t be taken over by the USA. Krieghund, where in the rules is your reply supported?  We’ve been playing colonies controlled by major powers, such as Morocco contrllled by Britain, can’t be taken over by allies, but colonies not controlled by major powers, such as Belgian Congo, can be taken over and controlled by allies.

Morocco is not British, it is Spanish.  Check the map, not the rulebook.

@P-Unit:

This is not how I understand the rules. Morocco is a British colony and thus can’t be taken over by the USA.

Morocco is a French colony and can’t be taken over by the USA (unless being recaptured from the Central Powers while Paris is enemy-held).  However, the question concerned Spanish Morocco, which is a colony of neutral Spain, and thus fair game for both sides.

@Krieghund:

No.  There are no “declarations of war” in this game.  The US is only brought into the war before its fourth turn if a hostile act (as detailed in the rules) is committed against it.  Unlike a sea attack, an amphibious assault must be announced during the movement phase.

OK if US is still neutral, when would you announce the amphib? At the beginning of the movement phase (before you move any units), or “during” the movement phase as you get into position next to the land?

How would it work if the neutral US has a cruiser in sz 2, but has no surface war ships in sz1 (next to coast). Could I move my German transport from sz 7 past the neutral US cruiser, and then announce my intentions to do an amphib as I get to the coast (would still technically be in the movement phase). I would think this wouldn’t be allowed as all movement is considered at the same time, but how can you announce an amphib before you get to the adjacent sz?

The amphib rules go into detail about clearing the sz of enemy surface war ships when it is adjacent to the land battle. Just saying if their mines aren’t active for the amphib, why would the cruiser in sz 2 be hostel if it starts the turn neutral and isn’t attacked.

You announce the amphibious assault during the movement phase, as you move the transport(s).  Since all movement occurs simultaneously, any hostile act taken during the movement phase affects all movement in that phase.  As a result, the transport(s) could not move through any US ships blocking their way.  The mines are active (see previous post), as they are rolled for at the end of the movement phase.

@Krieghund:

@P-Unit:

This is not how I understand the rules. Morocco is a British colony and thus can’t be taken over by the USA.

Morocco is a French colony and can’t be taken over by the USA (unless being recaptured from the Central Powers while Paris is enemy-held).  However, the question concerned Spanish Morocco, which is a colony of neutral Spain, and thus fair game for both sides.

Thank you. Yes, I meant French, but I didn’t notice the territory in question was Spanish-Morocco. Sorry for the confusion.

When a fighter moves into an attack (with land units) at a count of 1, does it move out of the contested zone before the turn is over?  My thought was that the fighter would remain in the contested zone.  I am being told something that seems counter to the rules by the wizards help site.

If stays in the contested zone. There is no non combat round in this game: all moves are done at the same time.
Could you perhaps show the link where it seems WoC has mislead you?

Here was the  response I got from Wizards, after reading on here I thought I had the rules down, but this made me question a few details because it didn’t make sense.

Thank you for your great follow up questions. Here are the answers I have for you:

1a. If a fighter is part of a defending force and that tt gets attacked and the tt remains contested, the defending fighter then has to move out or would it remain there? 1b. And if the tt is contested (and the defending fighter remains there) can that same fighter attack out of it to another battle (right next to it lets say) (on the defenders next turn) or 1c. does it have to follow the moving out of contested tt rule whereby the units moving out of a contested zone can’t attack a new tt. (it might only say land units so it seems the fighter could make an attack from the contested tt)

A: (1a) Unlike the land battle itself, the air supremacy battle continues until one side has established air supremacy by eliminating all the enemy’s fighters. Additional rounds of fire are conducted until one or both sides have no fighters remaining. Fighters can move up to two spaces. When moving two spaces, it doesn’t matter what the status of the first space is. It can be a sea zone, a friendly or contested territory, or even a hostile territory. However, a fighter must end its move in a territory containing land units belonging to your power. So if the territory is still contested, the Aircraft must return to a territory containing land units belonging to your power.
(1b&c) No the fighter cannot move out of a territory that is still contested as it cannot land there to begin with.

1d. So you are saying if an attacking fighter moves into a battle which makes the tt contested the attacking fighter has to move again back to a non-contested space? 1e. The implication of this new ruling is that you are saying a fighter cannot move two spaces into a battle because it would have to keep one movement in reserve to move back? 1f. The rules say there is no movement after combat? It would seem the fighter would remain there. The rules specifically say the fighter only has to land where land units of it’s kind are not that it must be uncontested. (although I do agree that it wouldn’t necessarily make sense that an attacking fighter would land in a contested territory because no friendly airfields were there but it could also mean the other way that the fighters of the day could land on any open field that don’t necessarily have to be paved….)

A: (1d) yes, the fighter will need to leave the territory.
(1e) You are correct. A fighter cannot move 2 territories if it cannot land there. You cannot send the aircraft on “suicide” missions.
(1f) The aircraft rules on page 15 clearly state that “a fighter must end its move in a territory containing land units belonging to your power”. If the territory remains contested, the fighter must return to a territory with only units belonging to you power. You must be in control of that territory.

Take Care and Good Gaming!

Jamie
Online Response Crew
Wizards of the Coast
1-800-324-6496 (US and Canada)
425-204-8069 (From all other countries)
Monday-Sunday 7am-7pm PST / 10am-10pm EST

Further clarification of fighter rules is needed now since my question’s answer seems inconsistent with the rules.

1a. If a fighter is part of a defending force and that tt gets attacked and the tt remains contested, the defending fighter then has to move out or would it remain there? 1b. And if the tt is contested (and the defending fighter remains there) can that same fighter attack out of it to another battle (right next to it lets say) (on the defenders next turn) or 1c. does it have to follow the moving out of contested tt rule whereby the units moving out of a contested zone can’t attack a new tt. (it might only say land units so it seems the fighter could make an attack from the contested tt)

1d. So you are saying if an attacking fighter moves into a battle which makes the tt contested the attacking fighter has to move again back to a non-contested space? 1e. The implication of this new ruling is that you are saying a fighter cannot move two spaces into a battle because it would have to keep one movement in reserve to move back? 1f. The rules say there is no movement after combat? It would seem the fighter would remain there. The rules specifically say the fighter only has to land where land units of it’s kind are not that it must be uncontested. (although I do agree that it wouldn’t necessarily make sense that an attacking fighter would land in a contested territory because no friendly airfields were there but it could also mean the other way that the fighters of the day could land on any open field that don’t necessarily have to be paved…)

Response Support Rep via Email  01/22/2014 05:15 PM Â

Hello Matthew,

Thank you for contacting Wizards Customer Service. Here are the answers to your questions for Axis and Allies 1914:

1. Are planes considered land units. Thus can fighters fly from a contested zone and help with a new attack on a non-contested attack zone.
1: Fighter do not count as land units and must land in a non-contested zone when all the combat is done.

2. Do the two halves of Constantinople count as one so no transports are required like with egypt.
2. Constantinople is considered one land (zone 6) and do not require transport

3. The Russian revolution - How are allied units inside Russia delt with?
3. On page 13 it talks about the optional rule Russian Revolution. It has a list of the changes to Russia and the rules. Only Russian pieces are removed from the board. Other Allied forces are not affected. It also says the allied player controlling United States should also control Russia.

Please let us know if you ever have any further questions or concerns. You can reply to this email or you can call us at the phone number listed below during business hours. We’ll be happy to help as best we can.

Jacob P.
Online Response Crew
Wizards of the Coast
1-800-324-6496 (US and Canada)
425-204-8069 (From all other countries)
Monday-Sunday 7am-7pm PST / 10am-10pm EST

Welcome, SirSonic!

The Wizards support guys really do try, but they’re not always familiar with the rules quirks of individual games.  In this case, they’re falling victim to applying rules from WWII games to a WWI game.  Here are your answers:

@SirSonic:

1a. If a fighter is part of a defending force and that tt gets attacked and the tt remains contested, the defending fighter then has to move out or would it remain there?

It remains there.

@SirSonic:

1b. And if the tt is contested (and the defending fighter remains there) can that same fighter attack out of it to another battle (right next to it lets say) (on the defenders next turn) or 1c. does it have to follow the moving out of contested tt rule whereby the units moving out of a contested zone can’t attack a new tt. (it might only say land units so it seems the fighter could make an attack from the contested tt)

That restriction applies only to land units, and therefore not to fighters.  They may move anywhere they may normally move when leaving a contested territory.

@SirSonic:

1d. So you are saying if an attacking fighter moves into a battle which makes the tt contested the attacking fighter has to move again back to a non-contested space?

No.  In fact, it may not move again in the same turn, as there is only one movement phase.

@SirSonic:

2. Do the two halves of Constantinople count as one so no transports are required like with egypt.

Yes.

@SirSonic:

3. The Russian revolution - How are allied units inside Russia delt with?

Other Allied powers may no longer move units into original Russian territories that are either controlled by Russia or shared between Russia and the Central Powers.  Any such units remaining in those territories at the end of their next respective turn will be removed from the board at that time.

See the “official” unofficial FAQ for more clarifications on the Russian Revolution.

@SirSonic:

2. Do the two halves of Constantinople count as one so no transports are required like with egypt.

Krieg answered the Constantinople part, but to be clear, the territory “Egypt” includes the Sinai peninsula (the little grey part east of the Suez canal) and thus units require no transport to move between Egypt and Trans-Jordan.

Now for my own question: Are Crete and Cyprus (in SZ 19) considered part of Greece or are they the only non-territories on the map?

Islands without names are not territories.

If major allied tt like Albania gets activated and gets attacked by Austria and taken over.  Then France comes in and liberates it.  Does France control it or liberate it for Italy.  (If they control it they would then get the income but if they liberate it they would just give control back to Italy and they would get the income on their next turn if they retained it….)
I think I read something similar that France would then control it like Belgium would get controlled by Brittan if they took it back from the Germans.  So the allied-neutral only plays a part for the one time initial activation and does not indicate any income link…basically they are treated like a controlled neutral after they are activated?