I am game.
I have only played the AI a handful of times. Not sure about game balance or bids or any of that.
Willing to play Allies.
galendae@yahoo.com shoot me an email if you can find half a day. I am on vacation for next 10 days.
Galendae
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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No, he’s saying that in the G40 game, there’s no payment for the USA when Japan declares war. The USA just gets to start collecting its NO bonuses during USA’s collect income phase.
cond1024, if I recall correctly, France can declare war on Japan whenever it wants to, but it has no bearing on anything else.
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sorry I meant it AAP 2nd. as per the prior question.
No, he’s saying that in the G40 game, there’s no payment for the USA when Japan declares war. The USA just gets to start collecting its NO bonuses during USA’s collect income phase.
cond1024, if I recall correctly, France can declare war on Japan whenever it wants to, but it has no bearing on anything else.
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so the payment is done immediate after DOW from Japan. Then on the Collect Income phase USA gets it’s normal NO. Am i getting it right?
Yes. The immediate payment is in addition to USA NO
(Note to all - this is a P40 question in the G40 thread)
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How does the French DOW on Japan work? Can France declare war on Japan at anytime? Does that have a bearing on any of the other Pacific combatants or Japan’s prewar NO?
French DOW has no effect except that France is at war with Japan (and therefore Japan cannot ignore the French destroyer)
Beware NOT declaring war with France - players have depended on the French destroyer to block an assault on India in the early going while neglecting to declare war with France. You don’t want that to happen to you.
Japan can also declare war on France with no other effects. Note that it takes an ATTACK on FIC to end the 10 IPC NO, the declaration alone doesn’t do it. It is possible for Japan to sink the French destroyer and still collect this NO for trade with USA.
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If southern Italy is captured (the Capital) can Germany then move into Northern Italy and collect the 4 ipc’s? That is until Italy’s capital is liberated.
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If southern Italy is captured (the Capital) can Germany then move into Northern Italy and collect the 4 ipc’s? That is until Italy’s capital is liberated.
If the allies take Northern Italy and Southern Italy and Germany liberates Northern Italy after that, it becomes German (like any other country: if a territory is retaken and the original capital is taken by the enemy the territory becomes of the party that took it).
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If southern Italy is captured (the Capital) can Germany then move into Northern Italy and collect the 4 ipc’s? That is until Italy’s capital is liberated.
Yes, and so could Japan :-)
Also, Germany can use the facilities on North Italy, which would include the minor IC
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To be clear, an Axis power could only take control of Northern Italy under these circumstances by recapturing it from an Allied power. It could not take control directly from Italy.
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I had this question come up in the last game I played. China has enough IPCs saved to purchase troops, doesn’t control any territory, but has some troops in Burma that they expect to be able to take a territory with where they could place troops. Is it legal for China to purchase units during the purchase units phase, even though they don’t have a legal place to put them when purchasing, but they expect to have a legal spot to place them by the end of their turn?
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I had this question come up in the last game I played. China has enough IPCs saved to purchase troops, doesn’t control any territory, but has some troops in Burma that they expect to be able to take a territory with where they could place troops. Is it legal for China to purchase units during the purchase units phase, even though they don’t have a legal place to put them when purchasing, but they expect to have a legal spot to place them by the end of their turn?
Yes, it’s legal. There is no requirement that they own Chinese territory at the beginning of the turn, when purchasing units. If they fail to take the requisite territory, then the money would be refunded.
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Actually, it isn’t legal, per the FAQ update of 11/24/14:
Q. Can I purposely purchase more units than I can mobilize with the intent of deciding which units I want to keep based on the outcome of battles I intend to fight?
A. No. You may only purchase as many units as you will have the ability to mobilize after making repairs to any damaged industrial complexes. The rules for returning excess units are intended only for inadvertent over-purchasing. -
Great point, but I have a question about that.
They are purchasing units that CAN be mobilized, so it doesn’t seem that this FAQ applies, because the question says “Can I purposely purchase more units than I can mobilize”
Also, there is no intent of deciding which units can be kept, depending on outcome of battles. It’s just infantry.
Also, obviously industrial complexes are not involved.
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China has no capacity to mobilize units during the purchase phase (Industrial Complexes and damage to them are irrelevant, as China doesn’t use them to mobilize), because it doesn’t control any of its original territories. Obviously in this case either all of the units will be mobilized or all of them will be returned for a refund, but that eventuality will be based on the outcome of battles.
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Thanks Krieg, that explanation makes sense.
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To be clear, an Axis power could only take control of Northern Italy under these circumstances by recapturing it from an Allied power. It could not take control directly from Italy.
Thanks for the clarification Krieghund
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Question to bombing raid.
Situation: GER attacked London with 2 Bombers and 2 Tactical Bombers. There are no british Fighters present.
The rulebook said: “If the territory offers more than one target, the bombers may be divided into groups, and each assigned a specific target […]” Europe Rulebook, 2nd, Page 17.
What is right, if i send 1 Tac to airfield, 1 Tac to harbour and 2 Bombers to the factory:
1.) Does the british roll 4 dices together and the attacker can choose the casualties.
or does it mean that
2.) The british rolls for each attacking group separately?
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Each facility fires only at the bombers that are sent at it. The bombers are divided into separate groups before there is any AA fire.
So if you sent two strats at the IC and a tac at each base, you need to roll three times. A single die for each base which would take down the tac attacking it if you roll a 1, and two dice for the complex, which would necessarily hit strat bombers - the attacker can absolutely NOT take a tac as casualty if the IC AA hits.
So, your #2 option
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Can transports unload within a sea zone with an enemy sub in it, during the non-combat movement phase?
Can you upgrade a Minor IC to a Major IC and place 10 units on it within the same turn?
1 lone AA artillery unit is being attacked by 1 fighter, is it possible for the AA gun to be destroyed or is a land unit required? if so, would there be a 2nd combat round seeing as the gun only fires once?
Thanks in advance.
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@Young:
Can transports unload within a sea zone with an enemy sub in it, during the non-combat movement phase?
YES. Subs only prevent unescorted amphibious assault attempts.
Can you upgrade a Minor IC to a Major IC and place 10 units on it within the same turn?
NO. It was not major at the beginning of your turn.
1 lone AA artillery unit is being attacked by 1 fighter, is it possible for the AA gun to be destroyed or is a land unit required? if so, would there be a 2nd combat round seeing as the gun only fires once?
Thanks in advance.
Yes, the AAA gun will be automatically destroyed if the AAA defense roll misses the fighter, because it has no defense value. This would be true of multiple AAA guns as well - think transports. It is inevitable that all of them would be destroyed because the attacking air can roll in perpetuity against 0 defense.
For example, if the Axis move all 4 Italian AAA and 4 German AAA together to a territory with no other ground or air units, the Allies could destroy all 8 of them with a single aircraft, if the single AAA roll misses (is not a 1). Or, the Allies could destroy them all with 2 aircraft, as long as the defense is not snake eyes
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Hello to all. I had Pacific 1940 for a while, thought it was to complicated, and recently acquired Europe too. Now I have taken up on learning the game (even though I still haven’t played it due to the lack of space in my house for the board). So my first question is if air units can scramble to help defend allied ground or sea units in adjacent (or the same) territory/sea zone that aren’t part of the same nation. Also, can air units scramble to help defending units that are being attacking by non-air units? Another question of mine is if you have a submarine combined with other units in a fleet and you take a hit, can you choose to lose the submarine? I got confused with that in the rules. Also, if you run out of units (you build all your tanks and they all dies is an example) can you build more tanks? Do you have to substitute a household item as a tank? In addition, what purpose does the battleboard serve? I roll a dice for each type of unit (if 1 unit of that type 1 die, if 2 units 2 die, etc.) If the combat stat is 3, and any of the dice roll a 3 or less, its a hit. That’s how I think it is. Am I wrong and the battle board is supposed to do this, or am I mistaken and misinterpreting? Thanks for the help!
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