This isn’t exhaustive but:
Mongolian rules changed a fair bit. minor to major factory in Berlin scramble rules became logical (1st ed: no scramble from coasts e.g. London but unlimited from islands) UK units added to starting units (converted from French units). Don’t know why. Ukraine minor factory addedGlobal 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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How does the French DOW on Japan work? Can France declare war on Japan at anytime? Does that have a bearing on any of the other Pacific combatants or Japan’s prewar NO?
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so the payment is done immediate after DOW from Japan. Then on the Collect Income phase USA gets it’s normal NO. Am i getting it right?
@wittmann:
No, FADM. That is only on Pacific. The standard at war NOs count in Global.
That special 30 was introduced, as it was found Japan could sneak the US and capture its capital. Is for balance in Pacific only. -
No, he’s saying that in the G40 game, there’s no payment for the USA when Japan declares war. The USA just gets to start collecting its NO bonuses during USA’s collect income phase.
cond1024, if I recall correctly, France can declare war on Japan whenever it wants to, but it has no bearing on anything else.
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sorry I meant it AAP 2nd. as per the prior question.
No, he’s saying that in the G40 game, there’s no payment for the USA when Japan declares war. The USA just gets to start collecting its NO bonuses during USA’s collect income phase.
cond1024, if I recall correctly, France can declare war on Japan whenever it wants to, but it has no bearing on anything else.
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so the payment is done immediate after DOW from Japan. Then on the Collect Income phase USA gets it’s normal NO. Am i getting it right?
Yes. The immediate payment is in addition to USA NO
(Note to all - this is a P40 question in the G40 thread)
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How does the French DOW on Japan work? Can France declare war on Japan at anytime? Does that have a bearing on any of the other Pacific combatants or Japan’s prewar NO?
French DOW has no effect except that France is at war with Japan (and therefore Japan cannot ignore the French destroyer)
Beware NOT declaring war with France - players have depended on the French destroyer to block an assault on India in the early going while neglecting to declare war with France. You don’t want that to happen to you.
Japan can also declare war on France with no other effects. Note that it takes an ATTACK on FIC to end the 10 IPC NO, the declaration alone doesn’t do it. It is possible for Japan to sink the French destroyer and still collect this NO for trade with USA.
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If southern Italy is captured (the Capital) can Germany then move into Northern Italy and collect the 4 ipc’s? That is until Italy’s capital is liberated.
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If southern Italy is captured (the Capital) can Germany then move into Northern Italy and collect the 4 ipc’s? That is until Italy’s capital is liberated.
If the allies take Northern Italy and Southern Italy and Germany liberates Northern Italy after that, it becomes German (like any other country: if a territory is retaken and the original capital is taken by the enemy the territory becomes of the party that took it).
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If southern Italy is captured (the Capital) can Germany then move into Northern Italy and collect the 4 ipc’s? That is until Italy’s capital is liberated.
Yes, and so could Japan :-)
Also, Germany can use the facilities on North Italy, which would include the minor IC
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To be clear, an Axis power could only take control of Northern Italy under these circumstances by recapturing it from an Allied power. It could not take control directly from Italy.
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I had this question come up in the last game I played. China has enough IPCs saved to purchase troops, doesn’t control any territory, but has some troops in Burma that they expect to be able to take a territory with where they could place troops. Is it legal for China to purchase units during the purchase units phase, even though they don’t have a legal place to put them when purchasing, but they expect to have a legal spot to place them by the end of their turn?
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I had this question come up in the last game I played. China has enough IPCs saved to purchase troops, doesn’t control any territory, but has some troops in Burma that they expect to be able to take a territory with where they could place troops. Is it legal for China to purchase units during the purchase units phase, even though they don’t have a legal place to put them when purchasing, but they expect to have a legal spot to place them by the end of their turn?
Yes, it’s legal. There is no requirement that they own Chinese territory at the beginning of the turn, when purchasing units. If they fail to take the requisite territory, then the money would be refunded.
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Actually, it isn’t legal, per the FAQ update of 11/24/14:
Q. Can I purposely purchase more units than I can mobilize with the intent of deciding which units I want to keep based on the outcome of battles I intend to fight?
A. No. You may only purchase as many units as you will have the ability to mobilize after making repairs to any damaged industrial complexes. The rules for returning excess units are intended only for inadvertent over-purchasing. -
Great point, but I have a question about that.
They are purchasing units that CAN be mobilized, so it doesn’t seem that this FAQ applies, because the question says “Can I purposely purchase more units than I can mobilize”
Also, there is no intent of deciding which units can be kept, depending on outcome of battles. It’s just infantry.
Also, obviously industrial complexes are not involved.
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China has no capacity to mobilize units during the purchase phase (Industrial Complexes and damage to them are irrelevant, as China doesn’t use them to mobilize), because it doesn’t control any of its original territories. Obviously in this case either all of the units will be mobilized or all of them will be returned for a refund, but that eventuality will be based on the outcome of battles.
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Thanks Krieg, that explanation makes sense.
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To be clear, an Axis power could only take control of Northern Italy under these circumstances by recapturing it from an Allied power. It could not take control directly from Italy.
Thanks for the clarification Krieghund
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Question to bombing raid.
Situation: GER attacked London with 2 Bombers and 2 Tactical Bombers. There are no british Fighters present.
The rulebook said: “If the territory offers more than one target, the bombers may be divided into groups, and each assigned a specific target […]” Europe Rulebook, 2nd, Page 17.
What is right, if i send 1 Tac to airfield, 1 Tac to harbour and 2 Bombers to the factory:
1.) Does the british roll 4 dices together and the attacker can choose the casualties.
or does it mean that
2.) The british rolls for each attacking group separately?
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Each facility fires only at the bombers that are sent at it. The bombers are divided into separate groups before there is any AA fire.
So if you sent two strats at the IC and a tac at each base, you need to roll three times. A single die for each base which would take down the tac attacking it if you roll a 1, and two dice for the complex, which would necessarily hit strat bombers - the attacker can absolutely NOT take a tac as casualty if the IC AA hits.
So, your #2 option
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Can transports unload within a sea zone with an enemy sub in it, during the non-combat movement phase?
Can you upgrade a Minor IC to a Major IC and place 10 units on it within the same turn?
1 lone AA artillery unit is being attacked by 1 fighter, is it possible for the AA gun to be destroyed or is a land unit required? if so, would there be a 2nd combat round seeing as the gun only fires once?
Thanks in advance.
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