Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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Can Allied planes land on Chinese territories if they are at war?
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@Young:
Can Allied planes land on Chinese territories if they are at war?
If the Ally is at war, yes!
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If the Ally is at war with Japan.
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If you have transports starting in a seazone that contains a surface ship belonging to a power that you are at war with, can your transports pick up units from a territory bordering that seazone for a combat move?
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Some people are telling me that even though you share a seazone with a surface ship belonging to a power at which you are at war with, it doesn’t mean that the seazone is “hostile.”
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Example: Uk surface ship in 36, japan has unloaded transports in 36 with units in kwangsi, japan declares war on his next turn, can japan load kwangsi into 36 and attack some place with them?
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Top of page 14 in Europe 1940 Second Edition makes me think that its not possible.
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Example: Uk surface ship in 36, japan has unloaded transports in 36 with units in kwangsi, japan declares war on his next turn, can japan load kwangsi into 36 and attack some some with them?
YES
Normally, it’s not possible, but there is a one-time exception for the turn that you declare war in. Because Japan was not previously at war with the UK, Japan may declare war and load units from Kwangsi into 36 even though the UK surface ship is there.
Not going to take the time right now to show you exactly where it’s at in the rulebook, but it is definitely there. -
To add a detail, it must be a surface WARship. A lone enemy transport (or transport fleet) will never block one of your transports in the same seazone from loading. The rule about being able to load in a hostile seazone on the the turn that you declare war can be found in the blue “Declaring War” box on P.12 of the AAE40.2 book.
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What about in cases where they are already at war?
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What about in cases where they are already at war?
You cannot load a transport in a seazone that is hostile UNLESS it has become hostile THAT turn due to YOUR declaration of war.
A seazone is not hostile if it has only enemy subs or transports (units that are NOT surface warships)
In cases where you are already at war, you cannot load your transport if an enemy surface warship is present.
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You cannot load a transport in a seazone that is hostile UNLESS it has become hostile THAT turn due to YOUR declaration of war.
…and the transport began its turn in that sea zone.
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Can the Flying Tiger from China can land in Burma when Japan and the UK Pacific are not at war?
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If Japan attacks the Britain, Anzac, French Indo China while France is still with its capital, does that affect USA nuetrality
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American Neutrality and Japan
If Japan attacks the UK (pacific), ANZAC, or French Indo China, does that bring the US into the war
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American Neutrality and Japan
If Japan attacks the UK (pacific), ANZAC, or French Indo China, does that bring the US into the war
UK or ANZAC or Dutch, yes.
FIC, no. Japan will only lose the 10 IPC NO for taking FIC, but America cannot declare war based only on FIC being taken. -
Can Russia and Japan declare war on each other without impacting the mongolian thing (as long as they do not attack neighboring spots)?
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Can the Flying Tiger from China can land in Burma when Japan and the UK Pacific are not at war?
Yes. “UK Pacific” is not a political entity. Both China and UK are at war (China with Japan, UK with Germany and Italy), so Chinese units may enter Burma and Kwangtung. The restriction on UK units entering China while UK and Japan are not at war applies only one way and not the other.
@Cow:
Can Russia and Japan declare war on each other without impacting the mongolian thing (as long as they do not attack neighboring spots)?
Yes.
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Can Japan take French Indo Chine without losing the USA 10+ NO if France declares war first? The rules says “attack” is the prerequisite to losing the NO. Seems a little silly that France could declare war on Japan, Japan invades and the US goes into a tizzy about it.
Answer? :lol:
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