Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)

[gamerman01]

Good catch - it does appear to be yet another ambiguous rule in the book  :x

I was going to agree with Fortress, but reading the rules for bases again in the rulebook and also paratroopers, I think you have a good question and I don’t know the answer for sure.

Waiting eagerly for Krieghund’s reply

[Young Grasshopper]

There is a forum debate based on this question:

If an Allied nation liberates a French territory while Paris is under Axis control, does that Allied nation collect the IPC value of the French territory they just liberated?

[moralecheck]

Yes. They would place their control marker on it.  It’s theirs until Paris is liberated or the axis retake it.

[Panther]

@Young:

There is a forum debate based on this question:

If an Allied nation liberates a French territory while Paris is under Axis control, does that Allied nation collect the IPC value of the French territory they just liberated?

Yes, see
@rulebook:

Liberating a Territory
…
If the original controller’s (the power whose territory
you just liberated) capital is in enemy hands at the end
of the turn in which you would otherwise have liberated
the territory, you capture the territory instead. You adjust
your national production level, and you can use any
industrial complex, air base, and/or naval base there until
the original controller’s capital is liberated. The capturing
player can’t use these newly captured facilities until the
player’s next turn.
…

[Young Grasshopper]

OK, Thank you.

[Krieghund]

@Gamerman01:

Good catch - it does appear to be yet another ambiguous rule in the book  :x

What’s ambiguous about it?  It means what it says.  The infantry has to be yours, but the base doesn’t necessarily have to be.

[gamerman01]

@Krieghund:

@Gamerman01:

Good catch - it does appear to be yet another ambiguous rule in the book�  :x

What’s ambiguous about it?  It means what it says.  The infantry has to be yours, but the base doesn’t necessarily have to be.

Has there ever been a tech where you could directly use an Ally’s unit/facility before this?
Normally you can’t use an Ally’s units in attacking.  Since we NOW know that you can use an ally’s airbase for paratroopers, this feels like an exception.

Contrast the language for air bases and naval bases with the language for paratroopers:

Air bases: “When taking off from a friendly territory or island that has an operative air base, air units gain one additional point of movement range.”
Naval bases: “Sea zones serviced by a naval base confer the benefits of that base onto all friendly sea units in those zones.”
Paratroopers: “Up to 2 of your infantry units in each territory with an air base can be moved to an enemy controlled territory…”

I understand why you would question my statement that the statement is ambiguous, but I think this is partly because you know what the intent is and never had to read it from our viewpoint - (that is, people who don’t know the rules until we read the rulebook).
I’m not the only one who thought you couldn’t use an ally’s airbase for paratroopers… it feels wrong because it seems inconsistent with previous A&A rules.  But if the rulebook had said “in each territory with a FRIENDLY air base”, it would be abundantly clear.

And without this clarification that we now have from you, I could definitely see arguments arising between players once someone takes advantage of this rule (like launching USA infantry into Europe from the UK) much to the surprise of the defender, and a spirited argument taking place after that.  The defender could argue that if you could launch paratroopers from an allied base, that the rule would have specifically said so (and note the inconsistency with airbase and naval base rules).  So no, I don’t think the paratrooper rule as stated in the rulebook is clear enough!  Insert the word “friendly”!

[Krieghund]

@Gamerman01:

Has there ever been a tech where you could directly use an Ally’s unit/facility before this?
Normally you can’t use an Ally’s units in attacking.  Since we NOW know that you can use an ally’s airbase for paratroopers, this feels like an exception.

Not really.  It’s no different than using an ally’s base to extend the range of your attacking air units.  The tech applies to the infantry, not the base.  The base is simply a requirement to use the tech.

However, I see your point about the consistency of language issue.

[Young Grasshopper]

Can Allied planes land on Chinese territories if they are at war?

[gamerman01]

@Young:

Can Allied planes land on Chinese territories if they are at war?

If the Ally is at war, yes!

[Krieghund]

If the Ally is at war with Japan.

[ghr2]

If you have transports starting in a seazone that contains a surface ship belonging to a power that you are at war with, can your transports pick up units from a territory bordering that seazone for a combat move?

[ghr2]

Some people are telling me that even though you share a seazone with a surface ship belonging to a power at which you are at war with, it doesn’t mean that the seazone is “hostile.”

[ghr2]

Example: Uk surface ship in 36, japan has unloaded transports in 36 with units in kwangsi, japan declares war on his next turn, can japan load kwangsi into 36 and attack some place with them?

[ghr2]

Top of page 14 in Europe 1940 Second Edition makes me think that its not possible.

[gamerman01]

@ghr2:

Example: Uk surface ship in 36, japan has unloaded transports in 36 with units in kwangsi, japan declares war on his next turn, can japan load kwangsi into 36 and attack some some with them?

YES

Normally, it’s not possible, but there is a one-time exception for the turn that you declare war in.  Because Japan was not previously at war with the UK, Japan may declare war and load units from Kwangsi into 36 even though the UK surface ship is there.
Not going to take the time right now to show you exactly where it’s at in the rulebook, but it is definitely there.

[moralecheck]

To add a detail, it must be a surface WARship.  A lone enemy transport (or transport fleet) will never block one of your transports in the same seazone from loading.  The rule about being able to load in a hostile seazone on the the turn that you declare war can be found in the blue “Declaring War” box on P.12 of the AAE40.2 book.

[ghr2]

What about in cases where they are already at war?

[kcdzim]

@ghr2:

What about in cases where they are already at war?

You cannot load a transport in a seazone that is hostile UNLESS it has become hostile THAT turn due to YOUR declaration of war.

A seazone is not hostile if it has only enemy subs or transports (units that are NOT surface warships)

In cases where you are already at war, you cannot load your transport if an enemy surface warship is present.

[Krieghund]

@kcdzim:

You cannot load a transport in a seazone that is hostile UNLESS it has become hostile THAT turn due to YOUR declaration of war.

…and the transport began its turn in that sea zone.