Sorry if this has already been answered, but I did go through about 12 pages on this board a few weeks ago so I have done some homework.
I just couldnt remember this one:
Germany attacks z6 with subs, UK has a CV and some fighters. However, Germany is also bringing loaded transports. The subs sink the CV, planes still remain. Now that the subs and planes cannot hit each other, does the attack have to withdraw the tranports to avoid being autokilled, or do the fighters have to withdraw and Germany takes the sea zone and can then land the loaded ground units?
What is the answer here?
if the fighters hit, they can only hit the transport.
Atarihuana is correct. The fighters don’t land until the battle is over. Since the fighters and subs can’t hit each other, the fighters will keep hitting transports until they retreat. When attempting to amphibiously assault from a sea zone defended by fighters, you need to bring something along that’s capable of hitting them.
yeah i made a bad buy one turn, setting up a sub/ bomber attack against a pimped italian fleet ( + ac, 2 ftr) but no DD! it was too late when i realized that his planes would shoot down my bombers… i had to buy some DDs for fodder if i dindt want to loose my bombers
Thanks. Makes perfect sense. Going to have to kill me some fighters. :-)
is it possible to hit sz53 with 2 ftr, DD and sz44 with 4 ftr on J1 and then in NCM move the 2 AC to sz45?
I assume that we’re talking about the '41 scenario, and that the fighters attacking sea zone 53 are coming from the carrier in sea zone 61, and that those fighters will be picked up by the same carrier in either sea zone 51 or 52?
If so, then yes.
yes 41. and yeah sz61 attacks them. good to know :) might play an all out sink navy G1/ J1 opening and just concede after half a round if it fails :D
thats sweet that u can risk fighters like that.
If Germany has 45 can they buy an IC and 10 men? Would that put them over the 10 unit allowance? Just wondering…
Again for Krieghund to answer.
I am under the impression that with the factory technology you can produce 2 units at a factory even if it has maximum damage. However I just looked through the Rule book and FAQs and do not see where this indicated.
I am probably under this impression from early discussions of the techs late last year.
@Capt.:
If Germany has 45 can they buy an IC and 10 men? Would that put them over the 10 unit allowance? Just wondering…
Yes, it can. The limit applies to the IC, not to the country. Ten units can be mobilized in the territory of Germany (or in the adjacent sea zone), as it has an IC and it’s worth 10 IPCs. Because ICs are not mobilized in territories containing an IC, they are a special case and never count toward the production limit.
Again for Krieghund to answer.
I am under the impression that with the factory technology you can produce 2 units at a factory even if it has maximum damage. However I just looked through the Rule book and FAQs and do not see where this indicated.
I am probably under this impression from early discussions of the techs late last year.
No, you can’t. Increased Factory Production adds to the maximum production capacity, not to the final number that can be produced. (IPC value plus 2 minus damage, not IPC value minus damage plus 2.) If Germany has Increased Factory Production and the territory of Germany has been bombed for 12 or more points of damage, it can’t mobilize anything there until some of the damage is repaired.
@Capt.:
If Germany has 45 can they buy an IC and 10 men? Would that put them over the 10 unit allowance? Just wondering…
Yes, it can. The limit applies to the IC, not to the country. Ten units can be mobilized in the territory of Germany (or in the adjacent sea zone), as it has an IC and it’s worth 10 IPCs. Because ICs are not mobilized in territories containing an IC, they are a special case and never count toward the production limit.
Just to clarify:
In the rulebook it is said on page 13: “All the units on your power’s national setup chart are available for purchase…. Each industrial complex can only produce as many new units as the IPC value indicated on the territory in which it is located. For example, Germany can produce 10 units per turn”.
Considering your answer to Capt. Winters’ question - does that mean that Industrial Complexes are not a “unit” in the meaning of the rulebook?
So - if there are enough IPC to spend - Germany - with it’s one and only Industrial Complex in Germany - would be theoretically able to build (and to place) for example 10 Infantries and as many Industrial Complexes as it can afford - even if the IPC value of Germany is only 10?
Shouldn’t this important aspect (Industrial Complexes not counting towards the production limit) be added to the FAQ - or did I miss this aspect reading the rulebook/FAQ ?
Thank you for your help and patience :-)
ICs are “units”, but they are special ones that have their own special quirks. The Mobilization Sites special ability, as described in the IC unit profile on page 26 of the rulebook, indicates that the limit on the number of units that can be mobilized applies to the territory containing the IC which is mobilizing the units. Up to ten units may be mobilized in the territory of Germany (and/or the adjacent sea zone). A new IC would be placed in a different territory, rather than in Germany, so it wouldn’t count against the territory of Germany’s ten-unit limit. Since ICs are, by their nature, always mobilized in a territory that doesn’t already contain an IC, the mobilization limit never applies to them.
I don’t think that this needs to be in the FAQ, as it’s pretty clear on page 26 that the limit applies to unit mobilization by location, rather than how many total units may actually be mobilized.
ICs are “units”, but they are special ones that have their own special quirks. The Mobilization Sites special ability, as described in the IC unit profile on page 26 of the rulebook, indicates that the limit on the number of units that can be mobilized applies to the territory containing the IC which is mobilizing the units. Up to ten units may be mobilized in the territory of Germany (and/or the adjacent sea zone). A new IC would be placed in a different territory, rather than in Germany, so it wouldn’t count against the territory of Germany’s ten-unit limit. Since ICs are, by their nature, always mobilized in a territory that doesn’t already contain an IC, the mobilization limit never applies to them.
I don’t think that this needs to be in the FAQ, as it’s pretty clear on page 26 that the limit applies to unit mobilization by location, rather than how many total units may actually be mobilized.
I understand the mobilization limit aspect - thanks to your answer - perfectly now, thank you :-)
But I am still a little confused concerning the production limit that is indicated on page 13. As you said concerning Industrial Complexes “they are a special case and never count toward the production limit.” So this indicates that there is a difference between “production limit” (p13) and “mobilization limit” (p26).
I understand now that IC are not under the mobilization limit.
But what about the “production limit”? On page 13 it is said: “Each industrial complex can only produce as many new units as the IPC value indicated on the territory in which it is located.”
So the IPC value limits the number of units to be produced. I see no connection to mobilization here.
Or is there no difference between production limit and mobilization limit? Is the mobilization limit on page 26 just a clarification to the production limit on page 13?
In this case should I understand the sentence on page 13
“Each industrial complex can only produce as many new units as the IPC value indicated on the territory in which it is located.”
as
“Each industrial complex can only produce as many new units as the IPC value indicated on the territory in which it is located plus any number of industrial complexes the nation can afford as the mobilization limit (page 26) never applies to industrial complexes.”
Maybe it is because of my English that I cannot better describe my irritation…sorry for that.
Thank you again :-)
Ah, I see what you’re saying. There is no difference, rules-wise, between the terms “production” and “mobilization”. The terms are used interchangeably. “Production” limits affect only mobilization, and have no impact on what you may purchase. This is indicated by the fact that on page 13 under Step 1: Order Units it says that “you may buy as many units as you can afford”, with no indication of a limit based on the production capacity of your ICs.
Ah, I see what you’re saying. There is no difference, rules-wise, between the terms “production” and “mobilization”. The terms are used interchangeably. “Production” limits affect only mobilization, and have no impact on what you may purchase. This is indicated by the fact that on page 13 under Step 1: Order Units it says that “you may buy as many units as you can afford”, with no indication of a limit based on the production capacity of your ICs.
So if Germany as a Nation has only 1 Industrial Complex in Germany itself and for example 90 IPC to spend it will be able to
buy, produce and mobilize for example 10 infantries and 4 Industrial complexes?
Although page 13 indicates "“Each industrial complex can only produce as many new units as the IPC value indicated on the territory in which it is located.” - That means 10 for Germany?
Just to be sure…
Thank you! :-)
Yes, that means ten for the territory of Germany, so your example will work.
Yes, that means ten for the territory of Germany, so your example will work.
Great… I’ve got it then! Thank you :-)
Yes, that means ten for the territory of Germany, so your example will work.
At least I think I’ve got it ;-)
As a consequence of our discussion I wonder what impact damage will have.
Following your explanation I now tend to think that the amount of damage markers to an industrial complex cannot have any consequences to purchasing new industrial complexes as long as the nation buying them can afford it.
So if for example Germany has it’s one and only industrial complex in Germany itself and this complex is damaged with say 10-20 damage, Germany will be able to buy as much industrial complexes as it can afford without repairing, because the newly built industrial complexes will not be built in the territory of Germany and as you said “Because ICs are not mobilized in territories containing an IC, they are a special case and never count toward the production limit.” (=mobilization limit). So damage cannot have an impact on buying new industrial complexes.
Am I right?
