as a follow up, what about flying over true neutrals in noncombat? can you do so only if you conquer the neutral during combat or not at all?
I don’t remember for 100% sure. You’ll have to wait for Krieghund on that one.
You definitely can’t fly over a neutral in non-combat if it has never been attacked.
I’m not even sure if you can fly over a neutral that was previously attacked but not conquered.
are you even sure whether or not you can fly over the neutral if it IS conquered in the combat phase?
thanks
are you even sure whether or not you can fly over the neutral if it IS conquered in the combat phase?
thanks
No, not sure about that right now. Would have to look it up in one of the FAQ threads - easier to wait for Krieghund. He’s answered that, but I can’t remember. I’ll have to write a note in my rulebook this time.
As I recall, the official answer was:
Once a neutral is attacked it’s no longer neutral (not even pro axis or pro allies). It becomes full on “friendly” to the opposing side, in so far as it’s even a landing space for them similar to Dutch rules.
Thus, you can fly over during noncombat after you committed to at least one round of attack in the combat phase, which I’m reasonably confident was the final answer (but I’ve been known to be wrong).
High price to pay for switch all other neutrals, especially since I can’t think of many territories where there’s not an equivalent flight pattern re route that would work in the same number of spaces? I guess you’re thinking of attacking Spain to overfly and reinforce The Rock during noncom?
I was vaguely remembering that was the answer as well, but wasn’t sure enough to put it out there.
But we’re remembering the same thing, so it’s probably accurate.
Once a neutral has been attacked for at least one round, you can then over-fly it in later phases (including that non-combat phase).
kcdzim - are you saying the allies would be able to LAND AIRCRAFT in the neutral immediately? i was completely unaware of this. gamer can you confirm?
kcdzim - are you saying the allies would be able to LAND AIRCRAFT in the neutral immediately? i was completely unaware of this. gamer can you confirm?
You can NEVER land aircraft in a territory that was not friendly at the beginning of your turn.
No, kcd is not saying that, but I see now how you get that. He said it becomes friendly TO THE OPPOSING SIDE
He meant you could land there on subsequent turns.
If USA attacks Spain unsuccessfully, then Italy can land planes there on its next turn. The UK cannot, because Spain is still not controlled by the Allies.
wait. here is what i mean. if germany attacked spain and didn’t conquer it, can RUSSIA land aircraft there on it’s immediately following turn?
Kcdzim is correct.
You don’t “declare war” on neutral territories - you simply attack them. Attacking a neutral territory immediately converts that territory to the opposite alliance. All of the other neutral territories remain neutral (but become unfriendly to you), and you still can’t fly over them as long as they remain so.
wait. here is what i mean. if germany attacked spain and didn’t conquer it, can RUSSIA land aircraft there on it’s immediately following turn?
Yes, as Spain is now part of the Allies.
wait, please hang on there krieg. i have follow up questions.
if spain is immediately part of the allies, who controls those infantry? or are you saying they get activated similarly to a friendly neutral and whoever activates it gets those infantry? so they are like a pro-allied neutral that you can land aircraft in?
so that territory could be landed in by multiple allied aircraft of various powers but the infantry still remain uncontrollable to the allies until they are activated by a land unit?
and if germany were to attack spain it’s turn, you are saying that ONLY spain becomes “friendly” ie aircraft can land in it, but the other neutrals only become pro-allied (ie air cannot land in them right away OR on the turn they are activated)?
and if germany attacks spain but does not conquer it, it is true that german aircraft can fly over spain in noncombat?
if spain is immediately part of the allies, who controls those infantry? or are you saying they get activated similarly to a
friendlypro-allied neutral and whoever activates it gets those infantry? so they are like a pro-allied neutral that you can land aircraft in?so that territory could be landed in by multiple allied aircraft of various powers but the infantry still remain uncontrollable to the allies until they are activated by a land unit?
and if germany were to attack spain it’s turn, you are saying that ONLY spain becomes “friendly” ie aircraft can land in it, but the other neutrals only become pro-allied (ie air cannot land in them right away OR on the turn they are activated)?
and if germany attacks spain but does not conquer it, it is true that german aircraft can fly over spain in noncombat?
if spain is immediately part of the allies, who controls those infantry? or are you saying they get activated similarly to a friendly neutral and whoever activates it gets those infantry? so they are like a pro-allied neutral that you can land aircraft in?
The allies control those infantry. They can’t be moved, so it doesn’t matter - they don’t belong to a certain power. It is NOT similar to activating a friendly neutral in this way.
so that territory could be landed in by multiple allied aircraft of various powers but the infantry still remain uncontrollable to the allies until they are activated by a land unit?
Right.
and if germany were to attack spain it’s turn, you are saying that ONLY spain becomes “friendly” ie aircraft can land in it, but the other neutrals only become pro-allied (ie air cannot land in them right away OR on the turn they are activated)?
and if germany attacks spain but does not conquer it, it is true that german aircraft can fly over spain in noncombat?
This was the original question, and he didn’t answer it. kcd and I are thinking yes, but we can’t remember for sure.
wait. here is what i mean. if germany attacked spain and didn’t conquer it, can RUSSIA land aircraft there on it’s immediately following turn?
Yes, that’s exactly what I was trying to say. In my example, it was USA attacking Spain. Then Italy (and Germany and Japan) can land aircraft in Spain after that. (If USA failed to take it)
ok, but the infantry are to remain just a neutral standing army. and that is true only of a true neutral that is actually attacked by the axis. the rest of the neutrals become pro-allied neutrals.
so which allied country gets the INCOME from that friendly neutral? this is mind boggling. :lol: :lol:
if spain is immediately part of the allies, who controls those infantry? or are you saying they get activated similarly to a friendly neutral and whoever activates it gets those infantry? so they are like a pro-allied neutral that you can land aircraft in?
The allies control those infantry. They can’t be moved, so it doesn’t matter - they don’t belong to a certain power. It is NOT similar to activating a friendly neutral in this way.
these quotations are driving me nuts. so are you saying that the allies will never truly control those infantry, and they can never leave the country. so those white men just sit there until the country is conquered by the axis. in the meantime, can the country’s income be tapped normally, by whichever allied nation sets foot in it first with a land unit?
You’re getting more confused… Have you tried reading about unfriendly neutrals and true neutrals in the rule book? That should help.
I can go over an example with you that should clear it all up. Give me a second.
