Well yes, the probability of success for each die doesn’t go up, but with the number of attempts I increase the % that I’ll, at least once, get the desired result.
Well you finally get it. The number of chances does give you more opportunities even if the 16.666% figure wont be changing.
These dice are each reset because they are rolled not together, but individually against each plane.
If i roll 6 dice and you ascribe some ‘combined’ result that i should get…say 70% of rolling a one. I
More units in A&A will usually get more hits won’t they? The probability of 4 arm making at least one hit is far greater than that of one wouldn’t you agree? to be precise 93,75% compared to 50%.
This all is true in the case of independent events, such as throwing dice.
Well sort of. There is something called the Law of Large Numbers (or the Law of Averages) which states that if you repeat a random experiment, such as tossing a coin or rolling a die, a very large number of times, your outcomes should on average be equal to (or very close to) the theoretical average.
Suppose we roll three dice and get no 6’s, then roll them again and still get no 6’s, then roll them a third time and STILL get no 6’s. (This is the equivalent of rolling nine dice at once and getting no
6’s, there’s only a 19.38% chance of this happening.) The Law of Large Numbers says that if we roll them 500 more times, we should get at least one 6 (in the 3 dice) about 212 times out of the 503 rolls (.4213 * 503 = 211.9).
This is not because the probability increases in later rolls, but rather, over the next 500 rolls, there’s a chance that we’ll get a “hot streak,” where we might roll at least one 6 on three or more consecutive rolls. In the long run (and that’s the key - we’re talking about a VERY long run), it will average out.
In the case of AA rolls, This is a short run of potential rolls. The chances of this average wont likely approach anything of the sort that you claim with such a small sample. That is why your numbers are bunk.
There is also something called the Gambler’s Fallacy, which is the mistaken belief that the probability on the next roll changes because a particular outcome is “due.” In the example above, the probability of rolling at least one 6 in the next roll of the three dice (after three rolls with no 6’s) is still 42.13%. A (non-mathematician) gambler might think that the dice are “due,” that in order to get the long-term average back up to 42%, the probability of the next roll getting at least one 6 must be higher than 42%. This is wrong, and hence it’s called “the Gambler’s Fallacy.”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gambler's_fallacy
( you can also bring sub to SZ 109 and get better odds, but take the bomber to SZ 111)
Did you miss this attack? I can bring the Sub over to help out in SZ 109 and forget Labrador. giving it a fighter and sub against a DD, the bomber can now replace the fighter elsewhere to boost the odds elsewhere.
And so:
Attack SZ 109 1 Fighter and 1 SS vs. 1 DD , 5 vs. 2. 92.5%
Attack SZ 110 2 subs, 1 tactical, 1 fighter, 1 bomber vs. 1 BB, 1 DD ( should win) 99.5%
Attack SZ 111 2 subs, 1 tactical, 1 Fighter, vs. 1 BB, 1 CA ( should win) 85.7%
Attack SZ 112 1 BB, 1 tactical, 1 Fighter vs 2 CA ( should win hit on BB) 89%
Key Move: CA blocks UK Gibraltar fleet in SZ 104!
92.5%
99.5%
85.7%
89.0%
–--------
what is the combined odds now?
(Question IL, you propose to attack England in G2 with 3 inf 3 arm 3 ftr 3 Tac 1 bom 1 CV 1 BB right?)
No. I propose the cause UK to leave Italy alone because i “could do that” This plan has always been about stopping the UK attack on Italy. Nothing else.
UK will have as a result of this new attack:
12 Inf, 1 tank, 3-4 planes against 3 inf 3 arm 3 ftr 3 Tac 1 bom 1 CV 1 BB, which is 30% or 12.4% if AA gun hits
However, the best that Germany can do is take a chance on that Labrador DD/AP and make the odds:
55.2% success vs. 41.5% for UK ( these results are if UK still goes after Italian fleet with tactical bomber, which they need to win that other battle.)