Rules Q&A

@Shakespeare:

Have another Q:

Am I right that the territory’s IPC value no longer limits the output of an IC?

That is correct, it’s dependent on the type of factory, major or minor.

If Japan attacks on J1, how much does US start off with on US1?  is it 17 or 57? I would assume they start off with 17 and at the end of US1 during the collect income phase they collect 57 (if they did not lose any tt).

@Krieghund:

@Vareel:

so I would get 1 ‘free’ combat move so to speak, then after my first combat move against Uk/Az/US I would be considered at war for all further combat moves?  So for example, if the US had a destroyer in SZ 25, and I had a japan fleet in SZ 6 from which I moved 1 submarine into SZ 26 and use it to attack a US fleet in SZ 26, my battleship and transport in SZ 6 would then NOT be able to move to SZ 26 unless the US destroyer was destroyed because I am now at war.  However, if I were to move the transport first it would be able to bypass the destroyer and I would be free to clear SZ 26 with airpower and allow my transport to land troops.  If this is unclear just say and I will reword it.

No.  All combat movements are simultaneous.  It doesn’t matter which order you may them in.  At any rate, a transport making an amphibious assault is still a combat movement, so it would not be able to bypass the destroyer.

@Stoney229:

@Krieghund:

@Vareel:

Do allied ships ‘block’ the movement of Japan boats before war is declared?

No.  A sea zone is only hostile if it contains surface warships belonging to a power with which you are at war.

So and allied power can make a non-combat movement ending in a seazone containing surface warships belonging to an axis power (and vice versa) if war has not been declared between them?

Yes.

so , in effect, you cannot make a combat move without having already declared war, is that right?

can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?

@Krieghund:

@Stoney229:

How about getting into a discussion of why the company doesn’t publish the rulebook after (like, over a year after) they release a game.  They have all the rulebooks up to Guadalcanal on their downloads page, but still don’t have AA50 or AA42.  Is there somewhere else I should be looking?  Can I expect to be able to download a copy of the rulebook after release?

The rulebook and FAQ for AA50 is available on its product page on AH’s site.  I’ve been trying to get them added to the general download and FAQ pages for months, with no results.  Hopefully the AA42 rulebook will be made available soon.  Maybe when the AAP40 FAQ is ready they’ll do it all at once.

You should always check Larry Harris’ site for the latest FAQ information, as it’s nearly always published there first.

Thanks very much!

@Stoney229:

can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?

Convoy attacks are not combat moves, or non combat moves.  They are declared during the collect income phase of an opponent when you have ships in their convoy zone.

I believe that Japan could move their fleet into a seazone with a british convoy marker (and in fact a british fleet) while not at war.  During the british turn, during their collect income phase, Japan decides whether they will interdict the convoy.  At that point, a convoy attack is a declaration of war.

Question:@Shakespeare:

In the pre war turns, may opposing war ships surface or subs coexist in the same SZ without combat?    :?

Answer:@Krieghund:

@Stoney229:

@Krieghund:

@Vareel:

Do allied ships ‘block’ the movement of Japan boats before war is declared?

No.  A sea zone is only hostile if it contains surface warships belonging to a power with which you are at war.

So and allied power can make a non-combat movement ending in a seazone containing surface warships belonging to an axis power (and vice versa) if war has not been declared between them?

Yes.

@kcdzim:

@Stoney229:

can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?

Convoy attacks are not combat moves, or non combat moves.  They are declared during the collect income phase of an opponent when you have ships in their convoy zone.

I believe that Japan could move their fleet into a seazone with a british convoy marker (and in fact a british fleet) while not at war.  During the british turn, during their collect income phase, Japan decides whether they will interdict the convoy.  At that point, a convoy attack is a declaration of war.

That answers my question precisely, thank you.  So I understand that the rules do state, then, that the decision of whether or not to inderdict is made by the aggressor during the “defender’s” turn.

@shohoku201:

If Japan attacks on J1, how much does US start off with on US1?  is it 17 or 57? I would assume they start off with 17 and at the end of US1 during the collect income phase they collect 57 (if they did not lose any tt).

The US would still start with only 17.  If war is declared on the second turn, the US STILL wouldn’t have the bonus 40 available to spend until the buy phase of the 3rd turn.  Think of it as the time it takes for the US to effectively mobilize itself after the sneak attack.

National objectives work the same way.  You don’t collect extra money at the start of the game for any objectives you happen to be making at the start of the game.  For example, in AA50, at setup the US doesn’t get extra dough because she controls philipines, central USA, blah de blah de blah.  Objectives only kick in at the collect income phase at the end of a turn, not at beginning of game.

@djensen:

If the USA is not at war with Japan by the beginning of the collect income phase during the third turn, then the USA is immediately at war with Japan.

So the USA collects 50 from Western USA on it’s 3rd turn no matter what, right?  So there no disadvantage to anyone declaring war after USA’s second turn, right?

If Japan captures West USA, does it collect 50 from it or 10?  Is West USA a capital, i.e. does Japan get USA’s money in this case?

@Stoney229:

@djensen:

If the USA is not at war with Japan by the beginning of the collect income phase during the third turn, then the USA is immediately at war with Japan.

So the USA collects 50 from Western USA on it’s 3rd turn no matter what, right?  So there no disadvantage to anyone declaring war after USA’s second turn, right?

If Japan captures West USA, does it collect 50 from it or 10?  Is West USA a capital, i.e. does Japan get USA’s money in this case?

If you manage to capture West USA, the point is probably moot.  As for Japan attacking US on J3…  correct.  If it’s a good move you have no reason not to.  They will get the bonus anyway at the end of US3 even if you don’t.

Is the United States considered nuetral until attacked or declares war? Can the U.S. move it’s land units and airpower to territories controlled by the U.K.? They can’t go to Dutch territories so I assume they can’t go to U.K. territories?

The only restriction on moving unit to allied territory is moving them in china, which is considered an act of war, so US can’t do it but UK and ANZAC can.

@Admiral_Thrawn:

Is the United States considered nuetral until attacked or declares war?

Yes.

@Admiral_Thrawn:

Can the U.S. move it’s land units and airpower to territories controlled by the U.K.? They can’t go to Dutch territories so I assume they can’t go to U.K. territories?

No, it can’t.  Neutral countries can’t move units into other countries’ territories.  This isn’t clear in the rules, but it will be in the FAQ.

Krieg, I can’t believe what I am reading ….  :-o

The US can’t fly planes to Australia if she is not at war with Japan? Bloody hell, how was it possible this is not mentioned in the rulebook…  :?

@Driel310:

Krieg, I can’t believe what I am reading ….  :-o

The US can’t fly planes to Australia if she is not at war with Japan? Bloody hell, how was it possible this is not mentioned in the rulebook…  :?

If this is true then the allies are even weaker than I thought.

I can’t believe the terrible quality of the rulebook. I am a fiscal advisor. If I get one letter wrong this could have big consequences. Therefore we check, check and doublecheck all our work.
Either they are all incompetent or they try to save money on the wrong things.

I assume that if more than one allied player has units in the same land territory defending , that they all defend together, while they cannot attack together is clear in the rules.

@Stoney229:

So the USA collects 50 from Western USA on it’s 3rd turn no matter what, right?  So there no disadvantage to anyone declaring war after USA’s second turn, right?

It seems there are all sorts of rules coming out of the woodwork, but so far the only disadvantage would be that the U.S. can attack Japan on US3. Though I’m not sure if this would amount to any sort of threat that early in the game.

Now that the game has been released,
is it possible to download the rulebook?
I’ve ordered my copy,
but not sure I’ll get it before the end of the year…
:?

In the rulebook in Phase 6: Collect Income it says " before you can actually recieve this income, you much check for any losses incurred by air and naval attacks against your shipping routes"

Then in the convoy section it doesnt mention anything about air units, only surface warships and subs.  Obviously air units (on carriers for example) are not surface warships but do they count went totaling convoy disruptions or was it a mistake to mention them in the quote above?

@Stoney229:

If Japan captures West USA, does it collect 50 from it or 10?  Is West USA a capital, i.e. does Japan get USA’s money in this case?

If Japan attacks, they are at war, so I’d say Japan takes a 50 IPCs territory. I guess it’s a capital and take the money, but anyway game is over if you manage such deed  :-)