UK collects the unspent IPCs of the Germany’s player, then, even if its own capital is in enemy’s hands. See page 21 of the Europe 1940.2 rulebook.
If Germany captures Paris on the first turn do they get all the IPC's?
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If Germany captures Paris on the first turn do they get all the IPC’s that France never got too spend?
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Hi D511. Yes, that is correct.
It is important not to underestimate the importance of Germany taking Paris on the 1st turn for this reason: Germany needs the money for further conquest.
Enjoy it. -
Wittman is right about the importance of taking Paris with Germany. A couple weeks ago, my group had an interesting development– Germany failed to take Paris due to horrific rolls. Usually, that would end the game, but the Italian Player ended up taking it, and he went wild with the extra income-- he controlled all the Med and knocked the Allies out of North Africa and was well on the way to South Africa by I5 or I6. Despite Italy’s success, Germany was never able to get that subtle edge over the Soviets.
Without the income boost, Germany cannot mount a very viable SeaLion, AND the build-up to Barbarossa is too anemic to make the push on Moscow really strong. It is amazing how vital that 17 IPC boost is for maintaining a good head of steam.
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