It’s been reported.
AAG40 FAQ
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thanks as always for your fast and concise answers.
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question: how long approximately does it take to play one game of pacific/europe/global. i saw somewhere that it takes about an hour to get through one round, i think they were talking about global. does that mean it takes half an hour to get through a round in the individual games? if we werent playing until the very end for example there would be a lot of conceding the game when it was a clear loss, about how many rounds would it take? 6? 7?
It does take about an hour to play a round in Global. It takes 30 to 45 minutes in one of the Theatre games. Six to eight rounds is probably as good an estimate as any.
ok, then its probably feasible to have a game starting after lunch and ending before dinner
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Well, in 6 to 8 rounds, you usually don’t technically win, but you can see who’s going to win.
Of course, it takes an hour to setup if there’s one person. With 6 people, it takes 10 minutes.
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in terms of setup are the only differences between global and the separate games the 18 infantry and 1 AA gun of russia in pacific map and the 2 infantry of anzac in the europe map?
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in terms of setup are the only differences between global and the separate games the 18 infantry and 1 AA gun of russia in pacific map and the 2 infantry of anzac in the europe map?
Well, something may happen to the ANZAC fighter in the UK.
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I like the ANZAC FIG. Its is for defense/scramble. It can not do much on its own
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I like the ANZAC FIG. Its is for defense/scramble. It can not do much on its own
It may be replaced by a French ftr?
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Hypothetical scenarios:
UK owns Normandy/Bordeaux and liberates France that turn. Can they still place men in Normandy/Bordeaux since they owned it at the start of that turn or does it become off limits?
Turn A, a Dutch island is owned by Britain
Turn B, it’s taken by Japan
Turn C, it’s taken by the USDoes the Dutch island revert to British control or does America take it?
Italy takes Gibraltar and later in the same turn, America takes Gibraltar back.
Would a damaged British ship still be repaired there since it’s allied controlled at during the repair phase or does it have to be a full turn around? -
Hypothetical scenarios:
UK owns Normandy/Bordeaux and liberates France that turn. Can they still place men in Normandy/Bordeaux since they owned it at the start of that turn or does it become off limits?
Not sure on this one. I re-read the rules on page 20 and there’s a statement in there that I don’t understand right now.
Turn A, a Dutch island is owned by Britain
Turn B, it’s taken by Japan
Turn C, it’s taken by the USDoes the Dutch island revert to British control or does America take it?
It’s American, because it wasn’t originally British to start the game.
Italy takes Gibraltar and later in the same turn, America takes Gibraltar back.
Would a damaged British ship still be repaired there since it’s allied controlled at during the repair phase or does it have to be a full turn around?Damaged British ship by Gibraltar could be repaired on UK’s next turn, yes, because it belongs to the Allies at that time.
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Hypothetical scenarios:
UK owns Normandy/Bordeaux and liberates France that turn. Can they still place men in Normandy/Bordeaux since they owned it at the start of that turn or does it become off limits?
Not sure on this one. I re-read the rules on page 20 and there’s a statement in there that I don’t understand right now.
Hopefully I get Krieghund to answer then, because Britain will own it next turn and the US will reinforce it in this game I have going on with my dad. It may come up soon.
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I’m the German player. I conduct 3 combat actions:
- SBR on AB in UK with 1 bomber and 2 escort fighters.
- Attack on Sea zone 109 with naval units.
- Amphibious assault on UK in sz 109.
UK player decides to scramble 3 fighters in sz 109 and to leave 1 fighter to defend the AB from SBR.
If SBR is succesfull (with 4 or more damages), the 3 Uk fighters can scramble? Because the AB isn’t anymore operative.
Thank you for your answers guys. :-)
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i guess, yes. because at the beginning of the combat-phase the airbase has been operational and all combat moves are seen as simultaneously happening.
right? ;)
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I like the ANZAC FIG. Its is for defense/scramble. It can not do much on its own
It may be replaced by a French ftr?
i like that idea!
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in terms of setup are the only differences between global and the separate games the 18 infantry and 1 AA gun of russia in pacific map and the 2 infantry of anzac in the europe map?
Let’s keep this thread restricted to the OOB rules, please. Including questions about Alpha+ here will only confuse people.
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Hypothetical scenarios:
UK owns Normandy/Bordeaux and liberates France that turn. Can they still place men in Normandy/Bordeaux since they owned it at the start of that turn or does it become off limits?
No, they may not. It reverts to French control immediately upon France’s liberation.
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I’m the German player. I conduct 3 combat actions:
- SBR on AB in UK with 1 bomber and 2 escort fighters.
- Attack on Sea zone 109 with naval units.
- Amphibious assault on UK in sz 109.
UK player decides to scramble 3 fighters in sz 109 and to leave 1 fighter to defend the AB from SBR.
If SBR is succesfull (with 4 or more damages), the 3 Uk fighters can scramble? Because the AB isn’t anymore operative.
Thank you for your answers guys. :-)
Scrambling occurs before the SBR, so the fighters are already scrambled before the airbase is damaged.
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In the non-combat phase can planes land on carriers? One more thing, if u have to do the thing where you spend the pacific money and have to place them in the pacific side or can you make up your own rules and just combine U.S.'s money and place their units anywhere by an industrial complex.
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In the non-combat phase can planes land on carriers? One more thing, if u have to do the thing where you spend the pacific money and have to place them in the pacific side or can you make up your own rules and just combine U.S.'s money and place their units anywhere by an industrial complex.
Yes, planes can land on carriers in noncombat.
I assume you’re asking about a split income US rule? That’s a house rule, and so you’re free to do whatever you want.
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Thanks for clarifying and since their are 9 countries could we just have three players that have three countries
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You can split the powers among the players in any way that you like, as long as one player doesn’t control both Axis and Allied powers. The recommended distribution of powers to players is on page 31 of the Rulebook.