Hey guys,
noobie here.
The only way to capture allied territories is that the ally’s capital must be controlled by an enemy right?
So what if some powers have two capitals,like soviet union. Does this mean that only one of the capitals must be captured by an enemy in order for allied territories to be captured, or both of them?
And about winning the game for global.Rulebook states that Axis wins by controlling any 14 vic. cities for a complete round of play,as long as they control an Axis capital. Does the 14 victory cities include or disclude the axis capitals?
The only way to capture allied territories is that the ally’s capital must be controlled by an enemy right?
So what if some powers have two capitals,like soviet union.
Moscow and……?? You must mean the UK. If India is under Axis control, Allies (but not London) can take control of UK territories that were previously under Axis control when the Allies capture them. If London is under Axis control, then Allies (but not India) can take control of UK territories taken back from the Axis…
Does this mean that only one of the capitals must be captured by an enemy in order for allied territories to be captured, or both of them?
see above
And about winning the game for global.Rulebook states that Axis wins by controlling any 14 vic. cities for a complete round of play,as long as they control an Axis capital. Does the 14 victory cities include or disclude the axis capitals?
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All capitals are victory cities. If you control Moscow for example, you control a victory city. So to answer your question, Tokyo, Rome and Berlin are each victory cities.
Is it possible to land a plane on a carrier of a power not yet at war ? English fgt on US carrier while US not at war ?
Is it possible to land a plane on a carrier of a power not yet at war ? English fgt on US carrier while US not at war ?
Nope. That’s against the rules. It’s answered on page 15 of the Europe manual in the sidebar about powers that begin the game neutral. See under “movement”.
The only way to capture allied territories is that the ally’s capital must be controlled by an enemy right?
So what if some powers have two capitals,like soviet union.Moscow and……?? You must mean the UK. If India is under Axis control, Allies (but not London) can take control of UK territories that were previously under Axis control when the Allies capture them. If London is under Axis control, then Allies (but not India) can take control of UK territories taken back from the Axis…
To clarify this issue, UK can always take control of its own territories, no matter how many of its capitals are held by the Axis. However, the income from those territories cannot be collected (and their industrial complexes cannot be used) if the capital that territory “reports to” is held by the enemy.
The other Allied powers can take temporary control of a UK territory (rather than liberating it) if the capital that territory “reports to” is held by the Axis. The status of the other UK capital doesn’t matter.
The other Allied powers can take temporary control of a UK territory (rather than liberating it) if the capital that territory “reports to” is held by the Axis. The status of the other UK capital doesn’t matter.
From experience I just KNOW someone is going to misunderstand that, Krieg, so please don’t get offended by my further clarification:
The territory must first be conquered by the enemy AND the original owner’s capitol must be under enemy control (or the capitol responsible for that territory when dealing with British holdings). Then, and only then, if a power allied with that nation attacks and takes the territory back from the enemy, can they take temporary control of it.
Example: Germany takes France on round 1. Japan does not attack French Indo-China on their turn. England may move units into French Indo-China on their turn, but since French Indo-China has not been taken by the enemy by this point in the game, England (Calcutta) may not take temporary ownership of the territory.
Example: Germany takes England on round 3. England owns Central Persia. Italy takes Central Persia on Round 3. England (Calcutta) takes Central Persia on round 4. Since England (Calcutta) is the same England, no one may collect for the territory conquered, because England (London) would be the capitol that would collect for it.
Example: Japan takes Borneo on Round 4 and India (England, Calcutta) on round 6. America takes Borneo on round 6, America may collect for Borneo, because the nation that would normally collect has their capitol under enemy control. If later, America liberates India (England, Calcutta) on round 11, then America no longer collects income for Borneo, but rather, it reverts back to British rule.
@Cmdr:
The other Allied powers can take temporary control of a UK territory (rather than liberating it) if the capital that territory “reports to” is held by the Axis. The status of the other UK capital doesn’t matter.
From experience I just KNOW someone is going to misunderstand that, Krieg, so please don’t get offended by my further clarification:
The territory must first be conquered by the enemy AND the original owner’s capitol must be under enemy control (or the capitol responsible for that territory when dealing with British holdings). Then, and only then, if a power allied with that nation attacks and takes the territory back from the enemy, can they take temporary control of it.
Example: Germany takes France on round 1. Japan does not attack French Indo-China on their turn. England may move units into French Indo-China on their turn, but since French Indo-China has not been taken by the enemy by this point in the game, England (Calcutta) may not take temporary ownership of the territory.
Example: Germany takes England on round 3. England owns Central Persia. Italy takes Central Persia on Round 3. England (Calcutta) takes Central Persia on round 4. Since England (Calcutta) is the same England, no one may collect for the territory conquered, because England (London) would be the capitol that would collect for it.
Example: Japan takes Borneo on Round 4 and India (England, Calcutta) on round 6. America takes Borneo on round 6, America may collect for Borneo, because the nation that would normally collect has their capitol under enemy control. If later, America liberates India (England, Calcutta) on round 11, then America no longer collects income for Borneo, but rather, it reverts back to British rule.
So basically you have to wait for the enemy to take control of an allied territory and then recapture it again?
ok so to clarify and clear the confusion.lets not use the global as an example . If france is captured by germany,and uk moves its units into french equatorial africa, uk does not get the ipcs? uk must wait for Italy to capture the territory( french equatorial africa) and then recapture it in order to gain the ipcs?
Oh and another question. If I have an AA gun and a Major industrial complex in my capital and my opponent strategically bombs it. Do the AA Gun and the major industrial complex get to fire?Or only one of the two? Thanks for answering by the way .
If france is captured by germany,and uk moves its units into french equatorial africa, uk does not get the ipcs? uk must wait for Italy to capture the territory( french equatorial africa) and then recapture it in order to gain the ipcs?
Correct. Then it must hand the territory back over to France immediately if France (Paris) is liberated.
If I have an AA gun and a Major industrial complex in my capital and my opponent strategically bombs it. Do the AA Gun and the major industrial complex get to fire?Or only one of the two?
Only the industrial complex fires. AA guns only fire in general combat.
Hi,
I know I read this somewhere but can not seem to find it:
My understanding is that there is one canal zone that subs can move through if not controlled by a friendly country. I seem to recall that this was Gibralter.
Is this true? Are there any others?
Thanks!
Submarines may pass through the Strait of Gibraltar regardless of control. Surface warships must have Gibraltar under friendly control to pass from SZ 91 to SZ 92 or SZ 92 to SZ 91.
@Cmdr:
Submarines may pass through the Strait of Gibraltar regardless of control. Surface warships must have Gibraltar under friendly control to pass from SZ 91 to SZ 92 or SZ 92 to SZ 91.
And as you like to do, Jenn, I will add some clarification… :-)
As with pretty much everything else in A&A, you must have had control of Gibraltar at the start of your turn. That is, you can’t take Gibraltar over from the other side and then non-com through the Strait with surface ships immediately after taking it…
@Cmdr:
Submarines may pass through the Strait of Gibraltar regardless of control. Surface warships must have Gibraltar under friendly control to pass from SZ 91 to SZ 92 or SZ 92 to SZ 91.
And as you like to do, Jenn, I will add some clarification… :-)
As with pretty much everything else in A&A, you must have had control of Gibraltar at the start of your turn. That is, you can’t take Gibraltar over from the other side and then non-com through the Strait with surface ships immediately after taking it…
Yea, don’t that just suck?
Like my Dad always used to say, it’s fair for both! :-)
Like my Dad always used to say, it’s fair for both! :-)
In the words of the whiney little bitches: “It’s equally unfair!”
Another question:
For the chinese; if all (100%) chinese territory is taken but the chinese had money left over their previous round, is that money saved and can then be used if the chinese are then liberated in a future round? ie if the chinese had 3ipc before all their territory was taken then a single territory is liberated, can the chinese immediately use their previous 3ipc to drop an inf? Or is their money assumed lost if all territory is taken.
thanks!
You are right. China never has their money plundered. You could save 20 or 30 IPC’s for the time when China is later liberated, and then drop 10 men on one territory. Some day I will do that, to exploit the ability of China to buy unlimited men on a single territory at any time.
Some final questions :
1. About convoy disruptions. How are convoy disruptions carried out in a seazone that is adjacent to TWO territories. e.g. sz101 adjacent to central and eastern us. If my enemy has like 5 subs and 3 destroyers,i would only lose 12 ipcs right?since the maximum loss is only 12 and not 20…
OR
us loses 25 ipcs , having to lose 12 for central US and 13 for eastern us, indicating that IPCs are lost for each territory.
OR
us simply loses 13 ipcs, maximum ipcs lost being 20
2.And what if my ally and I control two territories adjacent to a seazone that conducts convoy disruptions. How are the IPCS subtracted? e.g. france controls southern france and uk controls spain while their are 3 italian destroyers in sz 93.
3. Finally,isn’t the Turkish straits somewhat functioning like a canal since Greece and Turkey are connected?
Thanks :)
If france is captured by germany,and uk moves its units into french equatorial africa, uk does not get the ipcs? uk must wait for Italy to capture the territory( french equatorial africa) and then recapture it in order to gain the ipcs?
Correct. Then it must hand the territory back over to France immediately if France (Paris) is liberated.
If I have an AA gun and a Major industrial complex in my capital and my opponent strategically bombs it. Do the AA Gun and the major industrial complex get to fire?Or only one of the two?
Only the industrial complex fires. AA guns only fire in general combat.
So what if,in a very rare case,the AA Gun is targeted to be strategically bombed. It gets to fire back right? Thanks for clearing the mix up :)
