AAG40 FAQ

@General:

Since there are a lot of stupid questions in this thread I have got one too:

Is it possible to use other nations naval bases? I assume you can use friendly nations bases, but what about neutrals or enemies? More specifically: Can Japan use Uks naval base in Kwangtung? What about the US naval base in the Philippines (when the US is not at war).

Thanks!

No.  You cannot use another neutral power’s naval base nor an enemy’s naval base.  The US can use its own naval bases while neutral and once it is at war (and no sooner) it can use Allied naval bases.  The UK/Anzac cannot use the US naval bases until the US is at war.  Russia can use its own naval bases and can only use other Allied naval bases once it is at war on that associated board.  For example, Russia cannot use a naval base in Kwangtung until both the UK and Russia are at war with Japan (being at war with Germany has no bearing on the Pacific side), and it cannot use the UK London naval base until at war with Germany or Italy (being at war with Japan has no bearing on the Europe side).  Although it’s nigh impossible to get a Russian naval unit in play in the pacific.

Gamerman01 is right.  Because they have no non-aggression pact with Japan, UK and ANZAC are not under the restrictions of a neutral power on the Pacific board when they’re not at war with Japan.  If USSR is at war with Japan, but UK/ANZAC is not, USSR may use UK or ANZAC naval bases in the Pacific.  Likewise, the US could use UK/ANZAC naval bases if US is at war with Japan and UK/ANZAC is not.

@Krieghund:

Gamerman01 is right.  Because they have no non-aggression pact with Japan, UK and ANZAC are not under the restrictions of a neutral power on the Pacific board when they’re not at war with Japan.  If USSR is at war with Japan, but UK/ANZAC is not, USSR may use UK or ANZAC naval bases in the Pacific.  Likewise, the US could use UK/ANZAC naval bases if US is at war with Japan and UK/ANZAC is not.

right right, I always forget that board neutrality rules for russia are different from the UK’s.  Not that it matters though, because russia will probably never have a naval unit by kwangtung and the UK is pretty much always at war with japan first or at least at the same time as the US.

@kcdzim:

@Krieghund:

Gamerman01 is right.  Because they have no non-aggression pact with Japan, UK and ANZAC are not under the restrictions of a neutral power on the Pacific board when they’re not at war with Japan.  If USSR is at war with Japan, but UK/ANZAC is not, USSR may use UK or ANZAC naval bases in the Pacific.  Likewise, the US could use UK/ANZAC naval bases if US is at war with Japan and UK/ANZAC is not.

right right, I always forget that board neutrality rules for russia are different from the UK’s.  Not that it matters though, because russia will probably never have a naval unit by kwangtung and the UK is pretty much always at war with japan first or at least at the same time as the US.

Screw that, I will have a Russian Aircraft Carrier in SZ 6!  I don’t know when, or who the pitiful fool is that doesn’t surrender first, but I’m sure it will happen one day!

@Cmdr:

@gamerman01:

@gamerman01:

“… units can’t end their movement in friendly spaces during the Combat move phase except in four instances:” (and now I paraphrase) Tanks that have blitzed, units escaping from combat (sea units), sea units that will participate in amphibious assault (this would include scrambling - has been clarified by Krieg) and sea units attacking subs/transports (not considered a hostile zone)

Did you not read what I wrote?  It’s one of the four exceptions.

Did you read what I wrote? It’s an exception because sea zones are BOTH hostile AND friendly simultaniously.

Destroyers that come with the ships are not participating in the battle, but they are permitted to go as well.  For the record.  Because the sea zone (empty) is considered hostile during your combat move.  Aircraft Carriers may also end their combat move in an empty sea zone, because it is considered hostile.

However, destroyers and aircraft carriers may also end their non-combat moves in said sea zones because they are considered friendly.

Therefore, they are BOTH friendly AND hostile at the same time when they are empty (or only have enemy submarines and transports present.)

What you wrote makes no sense. You cannot move destroyers or any other vessel, FOR THE RECORD, during the combat move if there is no chance of them engaging in battle (no threat of scrambled fighters or kamikazi) BECAUSE the seazone is not nor can be made hostile, therefore, by use of proper logic, it is friendly. LOGIC states that something cannot be 2 opposite things, it is either one or the other. Admit that you are wrong and move on.

Do the Allies need to acually place a unit on Dutch New Guiney in order for ANZAC to achieve their national objective? (the description says Dutch not included).

Yes, a land unit is required in order to take control.

Can Japan use a kamikaze attack on the American destroyer in the Philippines J1?. if so and japan destroyed it, the Jap submarine in from SZ 19 would receive a surprise strike on the remaining American submarine, right? and if I also bring the Jap destroyer from SZ 19 it would negate the defending subs surprise strike, right?. I think I can do all this but I wanted to check and be sure.

Kamikaze may only be used on Allied powers’ turns, as they are defensive weapons.

So, the UK and ANZAC can take control and collect the IPC value from Dutch Islands in the Pacific without being at war with Japan. Is this right? Can the US do this as well?

So if no one ever takes Sumatra, America can never use it, or can never control it?  And when the frak would that ever happen, lol.

@Cmdr:

So if no one ever takes Sumatra, America can never use it, or can never control it?  And when the frak would that ever happen, lol.

Not sure what you mean by “American can never use it”.  America can still use it as a landing space or staging point once they’re at war.  It’s an allied territory whose capital has been captured by an enemy, albeit prior to the start of game, and whose capital isn’t a victory city, but it still behaves towards Russia and the US in the established rule parameters.  They just don’t have the UK/Dutch political exceptions apply to them.

Sorta figured, but since it’s never come up, thought we should clarify.

Sorry for the stupid questions but I’m playing the allies tomorrow and I don’t have my rule books with me. Just one more stupid question, The US collects their war time NOs when they declare war during the collect income phase of their third turn or if provoked into war earlier, correct?

Some questions from the beautiful city of Oslo:

1. When Germany and the Sovjet Union are not at war with eachother, can the UK land an aircraft in a territory belonging to the SU? F. ex. after attacking german ships? And vice versa: Can the SU land aircraft in a territory belonging to the UK (prior to the SU being at war with Germany)?

2. Can the UK and the SU mix any units while Germany and the US is not at war?

3. Can the UK and ANZAC mix units and use eachothers naval bases when they are still not at war with Japan?

4. Can Germany attack the UK ships in SZ 106 on G1, without provoking the US into war? Especially since there is a convoy in that sea zone.

5. Can you disrupt convoys without being at war with that particular nation? Can f. ex. Germany disrupt the convoy in SZ 106? Or the SU disrupt the one in SZ 125?

6. Do you have to make a DOW at the beginning of your turn to be able to disrupt a nations convoys in the non-combat phase?

Thanks (-:

@General:

Some questions from the beautiful city of Oslo:

1. When Germany and the Soviet Union are not at war with each other, can the UK land an aircraft in a territory belonging to the SU? F. ex. after attacking german ships? And vice versa: Can the SU land aircraft in a territory belonging to the UK (prior to the SU being at war with Germany)?

No.  While both are allied nations, Russia is not at war with Germany, therefore, they cannot host the British to dinner.  Once they are both at war with the same nation, you may use each other as per any other allied nation.

@General:

2. Can the UK and the SU mix any units while Germany and the US is not at war?

Yes, if England and Russia are at war with Germany, but America has not declared war on them yet (or had war Declared on them.)

@General:

3. Can the UK and ANZAC mix units and use each others naval bases when they are still not at war with Japan?

Yes.  Australia is part of the British Empire.  They are treated as a sovereign nation in the game to divide England’s money up.

@General:

4. Can Germany attack the UK ships in SZ 106 on G1, without provoking the US into war? Especially since there is a convoy in that sea zone.

Germany and England are at war.  Hostilities are already established between those nations and America has already decided to feign neutrality.  Attacking those ships will not bring America into the war.

@General:

5. Can you disrupt convoys without being at war with that particular nation? Can f. ex. Germany disrupt the convoy in SZ 106? Or the SU disrupt the one in SZ 125?

The Germans can, because Germany is at war with England (Political Situation) at the start of the game.  Russia may not disrupt German convoys until Round 4, or when Germany declares war on them.  Likewise, German U-Boats off the coast of the West Indies do not disrupt American convoys until America and Germany are at war.  Same with the other side of the board.

@General:

6. Do you have to make a DOW at the beginning of your turn to be able to disrupt a nations convoys in the non-combat phase?

If you do not make a DOW, then you are not at war.  If your enemy declares war on you, then you are at war.  If you are playing “automatic convoys” then it does not matter, if you are playing from the manual, well, Gamer and Krieg will have to answer you there.  I believe war is war is war and since convoy damage only comes into play during the enemy’s collect income phase, then yes, they take damage if you are at war by the time they collect income.

@Trisdin:

Sorry for the stupid questions but I’m playing the allies tomorrow and I don’t have my rule books with me. Just one more stupid question, The US collects their war time NOs when they declare war during the collect income phase of their third turn or if provoked into war earlier, correct?

If America declares war at the end of their third round, they do so just prior to their collect income phase, therefore, they collect their war time National Objectives at that time.  If Russia declares war, they may do it at the start of their 4th round, therefore, they may not collect their war time National Objectives until the collect income phase after hostilities have been initialized.