AAP40 FAQ

Deleted because my interpretations were wrong.

Hi angain krieghund,

Thanks for the answers, looks like the submarines can be very effective at disrupting convoy if no ennemy destroyers are around.

I have another question about scrambling planes.

If on the first turn my opponent sends a fleet in an adjacent sea zone to my island with airbase, but for some reason he can’t take the island on that turn and his fleet stops in that sea zone.

On my following non-combat move I send many air planes to land on this island.  Will those planes be allowed to scramble and attack the ennemy fleet on my opponent next turn if it stays there during my opponent next combat move?  And if it moves out of the sea zone during combat move?  Does it need new ennemy ships to enter the sea zone to trigger scrambling?

Thanks!

Serk

I’m not sure how much this will give away if you answer but I’ll ask anyway; is it balanced enough so that France will last at least a round against the German onslaught?

Kreig,

I’m fairly certain that you have already answered this one months ago, but i cant find it anywhere.

If china captures a Japanese Naval or air base in an originally owned Chinese territory, china immediately destroys it like it does with complexes since these are facilities right?

Also If china captures an AAGun in an originally owned Chinese territory it does not destroy it and keeps it as its own unit like any other power since its not a facility right?

Thanks for your help.

Does a single kamikaze attack stop shore bombardment, or must there be at least one conventional unit involved (surface warship or scrambled plane)?

If the US builds/captures a naval base, can ANZAC use it on its next turn immediately after the US?

@calvinhobbesliker:

If the US builds/captures a naval base, can ANZAC use it on its next turn immediately after the US?

Yes, I’m sure they can.

Can I attack a transport with something while simultaneously moving ships through the sea zone with the transport in combat move?

As I understand the rules, Japan attacking UK/ANZAC before they move into China or declare war first gives the US the ability to declare war, and until then, the US can land onto Japanese spaces and move through Japanese waters without engaging Japanese forces. My friend landed men on Okinawa and Iwo Jima as the US before I attacked anyone as Japan, other than China. The next turn I attacked the UK, and my friend argued that then the US was entered into the war, and since it was my turn, I would enter combat on Okinawa and Iwo Jima as the attacker, and he would get the defense rolls. I argued that since I owned the land, he would be considered the attacker, and combat would begin on his turn, thus making him the attacker. We ended up doing it as me attacking, and I lost Iwo Jima.

How should that scenario have actually played out?

I’m not sure if this has been asked already but let’s say the US attacks a japanese kamikaze island and a carrier gets hit twice and sinks and I needed that carrier to land planes that were participating in the attack. What happens to the planes? are they destroyed, not participate in the attack or attack as normal and crash afterwards if they have no place to land.

@The:

I’m not sure if this has been asked already but let’s say the US attacks a japanese kamikaze island and a carrier gets hit twice and sinks and I needed that carrier to land planes that were participating in the attack. What happens to the planes? are they destroyed, not participate in the attack or attack as normal and crash afterwards if they have no place to land.

Since airplane move in combat move phase and kamikaze attack in combat phase, the fighters would attack as normal and then crash.

Can’t the carrier move in that zone in its non-combat phase and thus avoiding the kamikaze attacks?

@special:

Can’t the carrier move in that zone in its non-combat phase and thus avoiding the kamikaze attacks?

Yes, but that means the Japanese just get to target the planes or other ships directly instead of the carrier.