I just want to clear something up. In our games, it is extremely rare for one country to use allied transports to get around because the whole thing is so cumbersome: EG load on land units owner turn, move on transport owner turn, unload on land units owner next turn. Also, there seems to be too much chance of enemy aircraft or subs hitting the transports and killing units from both countries. However, it has happened on occasion, usually closer to the end of a game when one country has a lot of extra transports with plenty of protection and another country has no transports but a ton of land units to ferry around. Usually this happens when the enemy simply doesn’t have enough stuff within range to hit those transports.
Anyway, I want to see if I have this right. For example, say the US sends a fleet with transports up to SZ 109. On UK’s turn, they load some infantry, artillery and tanks onto the US transports. On the US next turn, they move this fleet to SZ 112, which is next to W Germany and a German Airbase with 3 fighters on it. On UK’s next turn, even with NO UK warships present, if the UK says they want to land those troops on Norway, Denmark or W Germany, Germany can scramble those fighters and make UK stop the landings WITHOUT fighting the US warships?
It doesn’t seem right to me. I understand that the US is not actually attacking because it is UK’s turn, but it seems to me like this is stopping an invasion without any battle.
On one hand, it seems to make airbases and scrambling a little overpowered.
On the other hand, if the invasion were allowed, this would be a giant loophole to get around scrambling. One ally would simply build a huge fleet while the other builds all land units and you could always invade without dealing with scramble fighters.
So, do I have this right? In this case, NO invasion would be allowed?