@genken Might be cool to have a house rule that 1) 1, 2 or 3 the ship is damaged in a way that it moves at half but attacks full or 2) 4, 5, or 6 it is damaged in a what that it moves 2 spaces but attacks with a hit on 1 or 2 vs 4 normally.
AAG40 FAQ
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Can you move 2 (with mech or tanks) onto a transport?
Can you move 2 (with mech or tanks) off of a transport?
I’m not really sure what your question is.
A transport can hold 1 of any land unit, plus one (non-mechanized) infantry. So it can have a tank/mech. infantry/artillery/AA gun/infantry and an infantry. It can’t hold both a tank and a mechanized infantry. If they’re being loaded in the same turn, it has to be in the same phase (both during the combat phase or both during the non-combat phase) and they have to be offloaded in the same phase as well. If they’re being loaded and offloaded in the same turn it has to be within the same phase (you can’t load in the combat phase and offload in that turn’s non-combat phase).
Edit: It seems that your post may be better answered below, depending on what exactly the question was.
Does this mean that a transport can hold 2 artillery? or is it 1 infantry and 1 tank/artillery/mech./AA gun/infantry?
No. It can hold one unit of any type plus one infantry. So it could have 2 infantry, an infantry or an artillery, an infantry and a mech. infantry, an infantry and a tank, or an infantry and an AA gun.
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It is proper use of a transport to do the following:
Load a German on an italian Tnp, then on the Italian turn, the Italian loads in the combat move and unleads in the same combat move with the same tnp, leaving the German on the tnp?
In other words, is a tnp with a friendly on it able to participate in amphibious combat activity so long as it leaves the friendly on board as cargo?
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It is proper use of a transport to do the following:
Load a German on an italian Tnp, then on the Italian turn, the Italian loads in the combat move and unleads in the same combat move with the same tnp, leaving the German on the tnp?
In other words, is a tnp with a friendly on it able to participate in amphibious combat activity so long as it leaves the friendly on board as cargo?
Yes
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I have a question. On the turn that Japan declares war on UK/Anzac, can they move through zones that have UK or Anzac or US destroyers during the combat movement phase, or do those zones turn hostile the moment the DOW occurs and before the combat move phase?
Cheers
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I have a question. On the turn that Japan declares war on UK/Anzac, can they move through zones that have UK or Anzac or US destroyers during the combat movement phase, or do those zones turn hostile the moment the DOW occurs and before the combat move phase?
Cheers
Seazones occupied by UK/ANZAC turn hostile the moment the DOW occurs, which is before any move is made. Thus, Japan cannot move through any seazone that includes any UK/ANZAC surface warship (destroyers, but also carriers, cruisers, and battleships). US ships remain neutral and are ignored in combat or treated as nonhostile in seazones, and thus do not block movement until a state of war exists between US and Japan (which does not yet exist in your specific example as you only specified declaring war on UK/ANZAC and that does not immediately trigger the US).
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I have a question. On the turn that Japan declares war on UK/Anzac, can they move through zones that have UK or Anzac or US destroyers during the combat movement phase, or do those zones turn hostile the moment the DOW occurs and before the combat move phase?
Cheers
You may move out of sea zones that become hostile upon declaring war. You may load transports in said sea zones on the first round in which you have declared war and use them for amphibious assaults elsewhere, you may attack the enemy in the newly minted hostile Sea Zone.
You may not move through enemy sea zones for any reason.
Japan may declare war on any specific powers it chooses to do so, and, treat all other nations they have not declared war upon (or had war declared on them from) as neutral. Thus, if you never invaded the FIC, and never specifically declared war on France, you might be able to fool your opponent into thinking the French Destroyer is blocking your attack, when it is not. I’ve done this once in the past. It works, because the French destroyer is neutral.
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I agree with kcd
In reference to his Q&A:Note that if US ships are in the same zone as UK or ANZAC ships and Japan just DOW’d UK/ANZAC, the US ships are not part of the battle. They cannot defend as the USA is still neutral. DOW by USA on Japan is not allowed until USA turn, and this is Japan’s turn.
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Thanks all for the quick, helpful responses.
Cheers
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so if there is a japanese fleet, and i move a uk des there in peace, if he declares war next round, can he load the transports??? i thought you couldnt load in a hostile zone
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so if there is a japanese fleet, and i move a uk des there in peace, if he declares war next round, can he load the transports??? i thought you couldnt load in a hostile zone
You can’t except this is the one exception. When you declare war, you can load units in a hostile zone (but without moving a transport before loading) that was not hostile until your DOW.
It’s in the sidebar in the rulebook on page 15, last paragraph.
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I have a question regarding flying over a neutral:
The question is based on this scenario:-
I stage US bombers on (Dutch controlled) Suriname (in South America).
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The US makes an amphibious assault on Spain.
1. Does this end Spain’s neutral status then or later?.
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The US bombers seek to fly over Spain and attack France during the same combat phase.
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This leaves enough movement to just land in US occupied Holland.
2. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the combat move of the turn Spain was attacked?
3. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the noncombat move of the turn Spain was attacked?
4. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the noncombat move of the turn Spain was captured?Thank you for your answers and insights in advance.
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I have a question regarding flying over a neutral:
The question is based on this scenario:-
I stage US bombers on (Dutch controlled) Suriname (in South America).
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The US makes an amphibious assault on Spain.
1. Does this end Spain’s neutral status then or later?.
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The US bombers seek to fly over Spain and attack France during the same combat phase.
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This leaves enough movement to just land in US occupied Holland.
2. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the combat move of the turn Spain was attacked?
3. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the noncombat move of the turn Spain was attacked?
4. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the noncombat move of the turn Spain was captured?Thank you for your answers and insights in advance.
1. When attacked Spain will activate its infantry and is no longer considered neutral, as it’s at war.
2. Yes. Spain is considered neutral through the combat phase, thus Spain cannot be overflown.
3. No. Spain is no longer neutral during the non combat phase, thus Spain can be overflown.
4. No. If Spain is a friendly territory at the beginning of the noncombat phase, planes and units can move through it (obviously planes cannot land there)
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Yeah, I was thinking of while they are neutral…
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Yeah, I was thinking of while they are neutral…
Hopefully, he realizes that US bombers cannot be in Suriname while the US is neutral. It wasn’t specifically addressed, but I assumed that the US was at war at least one turn prior to the conditions of his question.
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3. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the noncombat move of the turn Spain was attacked?
3. Yes, if Spain is not captured. EDIT POINT: Actually, not sure about this one. Technically Spain isn’t an Axis power, but according the logic of the rules, Spain is “at war” in that the US had to declare war on it in order to invade. So, is it a pro-axis neutral with regards to how Germany would gain infantry, but a power at war with regards to movement? Krieg?
US air units may overfly Spain in noncombat movement whether or not Spain is captured. Spain’s neutrality is violated immediately upon the US attack (during combat movement), and it will join the Axis immediately if the attack fails. It will be treated as part of the Axis for political purposes, and as a pro-Axis neutral for the purposes of annexation by Axis powers.
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3. Are the US bombers prohibited from flying over Spain during the noncombat move of the turn Spain was attacked?
3. Yes, if Spain is not captured. EDIT POINT: Actually, not sure about this one. Technically Spain isn’t an Axis power, but according the logic of the rules, Spain is “at war” in that the US had to declare war on it in order to invade. So, is it a pro-axis neutral with regards to how Germany would gain infantry, but a power at war with regards to movement? Krieg?
US air units may overfly Spain in noncombat movement whether or not Spain is captured. Spain’s neutrality is violated immediately upon the US attack (during combat movement), and it will join the Axis immediately if the attack fails. It will be treated as part of the Axis for political purposes, and as a pro-Axis neutral for the purposes of annexation by Axis powers.
Can it be overflown during the combat move phase, as the declaration of war is prior to all movements, and the the neutrality is violated with the DOW? Does a power need to even attack, or can they declare war just to get a flyover?
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Didn’t you already answer this? :wink: (I see you edited your answer, but you were right the first time.)
Declarations of war are only made against powers. There are no declarations of war against neutral territories - only attacks. Air units may not overfly a neutral territory in the same combat movement phase in which the territory is attacked. As a general rule, when any unit (land or air) enters a neutral territory, it must stop.
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US air units may overfly Spain in noncombat movement whether or not Spain is captured. Spain’s neutrality is violated immediately upon the US attack (during combat movement), and it will join the Axis immediately if the attack fails. It will be treated as part of the Axis for political purposes, and as a pro-Axis neutral for the purposes of annexation by Axis powers.
I thought you couldn’t fly over pro-Axis or pro-Allied neutrals, though.
So if USA attacks Colombia (a true neutral - for purposes of illustration), then all other true neutrals in the world immediately become pro-Axis. You’re saying the Axis and Allies can fly over any pro-Axis country (including Spain) now that they are pro-Axis?
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I thought you couldn’t fly over pro-Axis or pro-Allied neutrals, though.
That’s right, you can’t.
So if USA attacks Colombia (a true neutral - for purposes of illustration), then all other true neutrals in the world immediately become pro-Axis. You’re saying the Axis and Allies can fly over any pro-Axis country (including Spain) now that they are pro-Axis?
No, that’s not what I’m saying. I’m saying that they can fly over Colombia, becuase it’s now allied with the Axis.
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I thought you couldn’t fly over pro-Axis or pro-Allied neutrals, though.
That’s right, you can’t.
So if USA attacks Colombia (a true neutral - for purposes of illustration), then all other true neutrals in the world immediately become pro-Axis. You’re saying the Axis and Allies can fly over any pro-Axis country (including Spain) now that they are pro-Axis?
No, that’s not what I’m saying. I’m saying that they can fly over Colombia, becuase it’s now allied with the Axis.
There is still some confusion. What’s the difference between Colombia being pro-Axis (which it wouldn’t be because there is no defense - it would become American) and Spain?
If USA invades Colombia with ground units, it is then controlled by America and all other (assuming America is the first power to invade a true neutral) true neutrals become pro-Axis. No aircraft from either side can fly over true neutrals like Turkey and Spain, still. But if you invade a true neutral that has a standing army, and you don’t take over the country, you’re saying that then any power is able to fly over that invaded country, that is now pro-Axis? (for example) If that’s the case, you would have to keep track of which pro-Axis (formerly true neutral) countries have been invaded and which haven’t. See? I’m confused! :-)
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