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I just lost a game as the Axis because of an interpretation of this rule
“The sea zone may be either friendly or hostile, but if it’s hostile, it
must be made friendly through sea combat before the amphibious assault may commence.” (p.12)
Does this mean that for example. If there is 1 destroyer in SZ 8.
Could Germany attack with a battleship from SZ 9, and kill the destroyer, as well as invade UK on the same turn.
The reason I’m asking this is because there is another line from the rule-book that says
“: If there are defending surface warships, sea combat occurs.” (p.15)
" Land combat can only take place if there was no sea battle or the sea zone has been cleared of all defending enemy units" (p.15)
More specifically the use of “has been cleared” makes it seem that there can be a simultaneous sea combat and subsequent amphibious assault
(What I’m asking is; if there is a defending surface warship in a tile adjacent to a land territory. Can you attack a defending surface warship with a unit AND do the naval invasion IF the attack is successful ON THE SAME TURN)
@PrivateerPuffin said in a question about sea combat in amphibious assaults:
(What I’m asking is; if there is a defending surface warship in a tile adjacent to a land territory. Can you attack a defending surface warship with a unit AND do the naval invasion IF the attack is successful ON THE SAME TURN)
Yes, that is exactly the nature of an Amphibious Assault (with a preceeding sea-battle (if necessary):
Clear the seazone, then unload.
Okay, so if it is possible to do a sea combat and amphibious assault on the same turn
If you don’t kill the surface warships. Do you lose your transports or do you have to retreat?
Does 1 surface ship prevent ALL naval units from taking place in the amphibious assault (i.e a battleship/cruiser). Or can you make 2 separate groups for the sea combat and assault
These are the only other things I don’t understand, and thank you for answering the original prompt
