@LHoffman:
Wow… I was trying to give you the benefit of the doubt, but I now see what I have uncovered here. Not really something I anticipated, but we’ll work through it.
Yes, as the war progressed, advocates for area/terror bombing came forth and that strategy was implemented. However, we were talking about pre-war or immediate beginning of the war bomber design and national policy. Since this is now essentially a debate in the vein of: “well, he hit me first!”
“When the war began on 1 September 1939, Franklin D. Roosevelt, President of the neutral United States, issued an appeal to the major belligerents (Britain, France, Germany, Italy and Poland) to confine their air raids to military targets, and “under no circumstances undertake bombardment from the air of civilian populations in unfortified cities” The British and French agreed to abide by the request, with the British reply undertaking to “confine bombardment to strictly military objectives upon the understanding that these same rules of warfare will be scrupulously observed by all their opponents”. Germany also agreed to abide by Roosevelt’s request and explained the bombing of Warsaw as within the agreement because it was supposedly a fortified city. Germany did not have a policy of targeting enemy civilians as part of their doctrine prior to World War II.” - from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strategic_bombing_during_World_War_II#Policy_at_the_start_of_the_war
Point being here that neither side, certainly not the Allies, wanted to use terror/area bombing as a tactical or strategic practice to begin with. War is an exercise in escalation, so it is not shocking that something like terror bombing occurred. To be outraged over it 70 years later smacks of some crusade. It is by this point unfortunate and tragic history that hopefully can be remembered and learned from.
Well… not sure what to say about this. I think the statements in bold speak for themselves.
Basically, you are defending the perpetration of the Holocaust on the grounds that it was 1) the merciful thing to do, 2) the practical thing to do and c) was in fact helpful to the Allies as propaganda.
I will readily admit that the Allies did not own up to all of their own mistakes or rather heinous actions, but there is still a difference between institutionalized and systemic mass murder and that prosecuted as a tactic intended to shorten a war. That is what I meant by some being worse than others.
I assume you mean, “perhaps even thousands”, because “perhaps even 1,000” seems a bit ludicrous given the scale of persecution against Jews and other political enemies, even by 1939. What the Soviets did was pretty darn bad too, and in terms of numbers they were far worse than the Nazis. The Allies did not fight in WWII to stop or prevent mass murder, although preventing the expansion of governments who employed it became the goal.
By balanced I meant that you (and seemingly Der Kuenstler) believe the weight of historical scholarship is vastly tipped in favor of an Allied “interpretation” and that you feel the need to offset that by telling the German “truth” side of it… thereby effecting a balance. If you cared utterly about accuracy and morality, I doubt you would give Germany/the Nazis such a pass on their faults, only because the Allies did some bad stuff too which is less-heralded.
I do not believe the Soviet Union (particularly of the 1930s - 1950s) was morally superior to Nazi Germany. Nor do I believe they were equivalent. Each case is unique in its different “bad-ness”. Moral equivalency on a socio-political-historical level is difficult to articulate or concretely argue about. There are many factors involved.
Does this imply that because Germany could not, or could not afford to, terror bomb to the degree the Allies did that the Allies should not have done it? Ignoring whatever morality is involved, war is not fair and if an advantage is able to be had, it will be utilized. Just because Germany was incapable of terror bombing huge areas does not mean the Allies were unfair or took advantage of the poor Germans because they could do it.
If, as some of your or Der Kuenstler’s comments suggest, Germany was not fighting a war of ‘world conquest’, there was little need for them to develop large, long range and high payload aircraft. All of their objectives would be land based and near at hand on the European continent. The Western Allies on the other hand, were removed from the primary combat areas by significant distances and required such heavy aircraft to fight the enemy effectively. Maybe that is also a reason they developed such weapons, before and during the war.
So Hitler (hypothetically) initiating terror bombing against slavic civilians is okay? It is hard to tell if that is what you are saying or not. I do not wish to put words in you mouth. In any event, he didn’t need to because the intention was for them to be killed (if they fit the description), displaced from their homes to the east or put in labor camps. I don’t see how any of those options (some of which actually happened) would be morally superior to a hypothetical terror bombing.
The fact is that Hitler did initiate terror bombing against England. Just because it was not as destructive as the Allied campaign does not change the fact that it was done. There is nothing genocidal about the Allied bombing campaign against Germany. Genocide is typically understood as the purposeful killing of a large group of ethnic people simply because they are part of that group. The Allied bombing campaign was harsh, ruthless, unrelenting, use whatever words you want, but it was not directed at Germans because they were Germans and the Allies wanted them all dead. If that was the case, why didn’t the Allies kill all the Germans when they actually invaded Germany? Why did they rebuild cities and provide for all the German civilians post-war? The Allies bombed Germany for the same purpose that you assert Hitler “wanted to retaliate” for: to stop the war or discourage its continuation.
Point being here that neither side, certainly not the Allies, wanted to use terror/area bombing as a tactical or strategic practice to begin with.
Most politicians are very accustomed to lying. A public declaration against terror bombing is not in itself evidence that either the Germans or the Allies had rejected the concept. Weapons manufacturing and weapons design are evidence of intent. Prior to the war, the British and Americans designed and built bombers well-suited for terror raids. The Germans did not. In 1940, Churchill ordered aerial attacks against German civilian targets. That decision took Hitler by surprise, as did the resultant, devastating effect on German morale. Hitler retaliated by ordering attacks against British civilian targets. Whether Hitler’s response was justified is perhaps a subject for another discussion.
The Allies had justified their massive scale, late war terror attacks (Dresden, Hamburg, etc.) on the basis that they were just retaliating against similar raids against Britain. That justification rings a little hollow, considering the Allies were the ones who started the terror attacks in the first place.
To be outraged over [terror bombing] 70 years later smacks of some crusade.
There are many who are outraged by the Holocaust over 70 years later. The victims of Allied terror bombing were neither more nor less human than the victims of the Holocaust.
Basically, you are defending the perpetration of the Holocaust on the grounds that it
was 1) the merciful thing to do, 2) the practical thing to do and c) was in fact helpful to the Allies as propaganda.
The Holocaust was indefensible. 6 million Jews died needlessly and tragically. Someone needs to take the blame for that. The question is, who?
When the Allies chose to impose a food blockade against Germany, they knew full well that tens of millions of innocent people would die as a result. They knew the Nazis would largely decide which people lived and which died. They also knew that their own immigration policies prevented Hitler from exporting Jews to French or British colonies. Had Hitler chosen to keep the Jews alive, he would have needed to starve or exterminate an equivalent number of non-Jews. Had Hitler selected that option–had he chosen to keep the Jews alive by starving an additional 6 million Slavs, or 6 million non-Jewish Germans–the result would have been as tragic as the Holocaust.
By imposing such a devastating food situation on Germany, the Allies gave Hitler three choices:
- Starve the Germans
- Starve the Slavs
- Starve the Jews
Choice 3 was not alone sufficient to solve Germany’s food problems, so Hitler chose all of 3 and a fair amount of 2. Choice 3 created very significant propaganda benefits for the Allies. Choice 2 also gave the Allies large benefits, and may go a long way toward explaining why the Soviet people chose to fight for the man who’d been murdering them by the millions.
The only peace terms the Allies ever offered Nazi Germany consisted of unconditional surrender. A group of anti-Nazi German generals planned to overthrow Hitler and make peace with the Western democracies. In their negotiations with FDR’s administration, they learned that FDR made no distinction between a Nazi and non-Nazi regime. FDR demanded unconditional surrender to all the Allies, including the Soviet Union. Given that Stalin had murdered millions of Ukrainians for resisting collectivization, the Germans knew what Soviet occupation would mean for them.
The Allies didn’t impose the food blockade because they were seeking some kind of negotiated peace. They imposed it because they wanted large numbers of innocent civilians dead. The blockade worked: tens of millions of innocent people did die, including 6 million Jews. The Allies benefited from those deaths. The Holocaust was fuel for their propaganda machine. The starvation of the Slavs greatly aided Stalin’s effort to motivate his own people. The starvation of Soviet POWs in German weapons factories harmed Germany’s military output.
I assume you mean, “perhaps even thousands”, because “perhaps even 1,000” seems a
bit ludicrous given the scale of persecution against Jews and other political enemies, even by 1939.
I did a little research and stand corrected. I had originally thought the Nazis “only” killed 1000 people prior to the war. However, 2,000 - 2,500 Jews died as a result of Kristallnacht. 91 were killed during or immediately after the rioting itself. But a number of Jews were beaten to death by concentration camp guards acting without orders. The Nazi government was responsible for putting those Jews in the concentration camps in the first place, as well as for filling the guards’ heads with anti-Semitic propaganda. For that reason, all 2000 - 2,500 deaths should count towards the Nazis’ prewar total, even though the guards were acting without orders.
Including other prewar killings, the Nazis’ prewar total was probably about 3,000. Compared to about 20 million for the Soviet Union.
So Hitler (hypothetically) initiating terror bombing against Slavic civilians is okay?
Of course not. The Slavs were neither more nor less human than the Germans, Americans, or British. Had Hitler exterminated 30,000 Slavs in a civilian bombing raid, it would have been just as tragic as Dresden.
If that was the case, why didn’t the Allies kill all the Germans when they actually invaded Germany?
The postwar planning of the FDR and Truman administrations was based on the Morgenthau Plan. This plan resulted in the starvation of large numbers of Germans during the postwar period. A report by Herbert Hoover, from March 1947, stated the following:
There is the illusion that the New Germany left after the annexations can be reduced to a “pastoral state”. It cannot be done unless we exterminate or move 25,000,000 people out of it.
Fortunately, the Morgenthau Plan resulted in the postwar deaths of “only” 6 million Germans; not the 25 million which had apparently been planned. As an aside: it should not be thought that those 6 million deaths are the only postwar mass murders for which the Allies were responsible. There were plenty more mass murders in addition to the Morgenthau Plan.
Why did they rebuild cities and provide for all the German civilians post-war?
Prior to 1948, American politicians came in two flavors: isolationists, and pro-communist interventionists. The election of 1948 saw a new breed of American politician: anti-communist interventionists. As the German people slowly starved under the Morgenthau Plan, increasing numbers of Germans embraced communism. Motivated by a combination of humanitarianism and anti-communism, the anti-communist interventionists pushed through the Marshall Plan. The Marshall Plan ended the starvation deliberately caused by the Morgenthau Plan, and set Germany on the path to economic growth. None of which changes the fact that FDR and Truman murdered very large numbers of German civilians. The limiting factor in these murders appears to have been physical and political constraints. There is nothing to suggest either president felt any moral inhibitions about killing as many German civilians as possible.