Which is of stronger use, 1 German Armor in E. Europe or 2 Russian Infantry in W. Russia?
If I could trade an inf for a tank all day with Russia, I would. That would mean Russia alone would entirely stop Germany’s income with their own, and then the other 2 Allies would win without breaking a swat.
You lose it without any defense and thus you net nothing for it and you don’t cost Russia anything for it.
You’re wrong by your own argument. Russia nets nothing for taking Karelia back, because like you said, it’s taking their own territory. Germany gained +2 IPCs there no matter how you look at it. +2 IPCs is more economical than +0.5 IPCs.
You’re also actually wrong twice. If you say that leaving nothing in Karelia nets nothing, then you can’t count Karelia’s +2 in your Archangel math either, because you are also leaving nothing in Karelia in your Archangel example.
You can still hold on to your argument by saying “tri, you’re right in the economic sense, but the larger picture favors me because xxxx.” What you can’t do is hold on by saying +0.5 is better economically than +2.
Tri, you are mis-quoting me when you post
Maybe all I’m really trying to say switch is that you tried to give statistics proving that blitzing Archangel is more economical on the small picture. That was all your 67% nonsense of doing same or better. Not only did I prove you wrong in that small picture using your own statistics, but Jennifer came along later and showed that the chances are even higher of losing a tank without damaging the infantry. You have no further argument to offer other than positioning and the large picture. You tried to show us on the small picture how you were right, but I see no admission of wrong calculation. It just seems like both you and Jen are saying that the small picture still favors Archangel.
Blitzing Archangel can be the right move, but not in the general sense if things are going average. Maybe that’s what we do all agree on.
In what specific case are you actually referring to, Switch? Because now I’m just curious, you keep saying “if so and so happens then it is a wise move” but I never get a good idea of what it is. I’ve heard vague references like if Russia does a Ukraine/W. Russia attack or German stacks Karelia, but what is it really? I don’t see that Germany can really afford to normally stack any of those areas more than 1 inf high early on, and that’s quite manageable for the Russians. With no German Karelia stack, archangel offensive pieces like arm/art are completely unexposed, so you could do something like what Ender said earlier and send 1 inf + 4 arm, and the odds of success there are much better than 2 inf 1 fighter. Those arm aren’t out of position to counterattack German units next turn, nor are they exposed.
