Hey folks,
I saw an old post (2014) by Soup76 about his 1914 reference cards, and I am wondering if they are still available, or anything similar?
Thanks!
While the adjacent territory with the naval base symbol is either under the control of its original side or contested, any enemy ship that moves into or through such a sea zone may strike a mine.
The Allied ships should have never been rolling for mines. Mines are only in play when the relevant land territory is controlled by the original power or is contested. When the enemy (in this case the CP) captures the territory, the minefield is gone. If the French march down into Italy and contest Rome, at that point the minefield is back up, and the CP would have to roll for any ships they send into the zone.
Ah, that makes sense now, thanks guys.
Turn 3. No USW.
Germany moves a submarine and a loaded transport into SZ1.
Since the SZ is not hostile (America is not yet at war), can Germany now proceed to unload land units to invade America without having to engage the American cruiser in SZ1?
If not (because the invasion makes the SZ hostile) are mines also rolled for the German ships?
In other words, when exactly does SZ 1 become “hostile” to the Central Powers during this turn?
I assume you mean turn 4, as no German transport could reach sea zone 1 on turn 3. The declared amphibious assault would make the sea zone hostile, forcing Germany to roll for mines and fight a sea battle.
Apologies if this has already been answered, but do minor nations mobilized units get to move the turn their mobilized. Say if I landed an inf in Arabai to activate it for the British, could the activated units then move to the Syrian Desert or the other territories that turn?
Apologies if this has already been answered, but do minor nations mobilized units get to move the turn their mobilized. Say if I landed an inf in Arabai to activate it for the British, could the activated units then move to the Syrian Desert or the other territories that turn?
“All mobilization must be done at the end of the movement phase, after all movements have been completed”
“…1914 has one movement phase…All movements must be concluded during this phase…After all movements are completed, minor aligned or neutral powers are mobilized, if necessary.”
Safe to say the answer to your question is no.
Yes, turn 4.
So you have to declare the intention of landing before movement.
What if there were only transports in the SZ? Does the landing still make the SZ hostile for the purposes of mines?
The reason I asked is that I was thinking about making Italy neutral on turn one, which would have allowed the Austrian fleet to sail into SZ17 without combating the Italian fleet, then land units in Libya. Evidently not allowed.
I assume you mean turn 4, as no German transport could reach sea zone 1 on turn 3. The declared amphibious assault would make the sea zone hostile, forcing Germany to roll for mines and fight a sea battle.
Can enemy subs pass through the Suez?
@Texas:
Can enemy subs pass through the Suez?
No. If the Allies hold Egypt, no CP ships, including subs may pass through. Vice versa if the CP hold Egypt.
@Texas:
Can enemy subs pass through the Suez?
No. If the Allies hold Egypt, no CP ships, including subs may pass through. Vice versa if the CP hold Egypt.
That is how it reads, but it doesn’t make any sense. I was hoping it was a rule book omission. Also, it is closed to everyone if Egypt is contested. Which I think it should be open to everyone at that point.
Page 14 has been updated with the rule change regarding land units beginning the turn in contested territories:
Land units that begin the turn in contested territories can only be moved to territories that at the beginning of the turn were either controlled by your power or contained units belonging to your power. (They can also remain at sea if moved by transport.)
ok so when a multinational force defends in a contested territory that is not a original territory to any of the defending forces and they defeat the attacking force…which defending power gets the ipc’s?this is a territory that is not originally controlled by any of the defending forces.
ok so when a multinational force defends in a contested territory that is not a original territory to any of the defending forces and they defeat the attacking force…which defending power gets the ipc’s?this is a territory that is not originally controlled by any of the defending forces.
The defenders decide who takes it, if they can’t the attacker chooses for them.
Hi :lol:
I have another small question,
First turn: with AH i attack serbia with one infantry, well… The serbian( 3 infantry 1 artillery from russia) units kill my infantry and remain in the territory.
Now on the russian turn can i move these units as if they were russian or not?
Ty
@Panz3r:
Hi :lol:
I have another small question,
First turn: with AH i attack serbia with one infantry, well… The serbian( 3 infantry 1 artillery from russia) units kill my infantry and remain in the territory.
Now on the russian turn can i move these units as if they were russian or not?Ty
Yes
On the same note, this is why France usually activates Albania, because Italy can then control the new Albanian troops on their turn and either attack with them or move them off via transport.
Are you allowed to build if your capitol is contested?
Yes.
I think I know the answer (No) but just to be sure:
Is it allowed to ship austrian units from contested Triest to hostile but empty Venice?
Not unless you load them on one turn and then wait until the next turn to do the amphibious assault.