The other changes brought by Alpha 3 seem too drastic to me, or just plain unbalancing.
Again, you speak for me too…
who would you say has the advantage with the new alpha 3 rules? Jen you make no sense. I have read in previous posts you say that alpha 3 favors axis. Now you are saying allies are favored… The new changes help out axis a ton! No air base on gibralter makes italy a part of the game. Less units for germany to have to kill R1 and an extra tank and bomber. How is it that alleis have advantage now over the first set of alpha 3 rules?
Considering there’s been like 400 changes to Alpha 3 since it was released it makes sense that my opinion would also have the potential to change as the rules do. It does not happen with each incarnation, but sometimes.
In a nut shell, instead of going through and reposting each and every argument: The axis have an easier time getting territories they always got anyway. The allies have a MUCH EASIER time holding capitols that they risked losing. Therefore, the benefit to the allies far outweighs the benefits to the axis.
Why?
Axis have to win.
Allies have to not lose.
Not losing is far easier than winning.
With the new changes have you noticed that Italy is stronger? Germany having more units to attack with and allies less to defend against G1 attack isn’t germany much stronger? Less risk for Axis I think makes it easier for axis overall. Allies might still have advantage, but I am asking why did you think axis got a huge boost when alpha3 first came out, and now that axis have gotten an even bigger boost you say allies have huge advantage? your posts make no sense. You shoot yourself in the foot with saying axis have it easier in alpha3 than alpha2, and when the alpha3 rules make axis much stronger you change your stance and say alpha2 was more balanced and that axis had a better chance…
What are all the European neutrals that would count towards the Soviet Union NO “3 IPCs for each original Axis or neutral territory in Europe (including Turkey) that the Soviet Union controls.”? I’m working on an update to the abattlemap module.
What are all the European neutrals that would count towards the Soviet Union NO “3 IPCs for each original Axis or neutral territory in Europe (including Turkey) that the Soviet Union controls.”? I’m working on an update to the abattlemap module.
First, thanks.
Second:
All in all, I count 20 territories for the NO. For your map, it might be best to put 4 rows of 5 boxes and just leave them unlabeled so that players don’t have to hunt and peck for the right box. Currently I am using boxes for territories I will almost certainly NOT get for territories I do get that don’t have boxes yet. (ie, Ireland and Finland primarily. I use Germany for Ireland and W. Germany for Finland. Odds of Russians getting those two are very slim!)
I was thinking about something. I know this is a stretch, but say it is possible that USSR could capture Southern France and/or Normandy-Bordeaux while France (Paris) is still in Axis hands. As such, USSR would get to use the Minor ICs and Naval Bases in these two territories, plus get the IPC value of these territories until France is liberated, at which time they revert to French control.
So, would the Soviet NO also apply to these two territories as well?
I was thinking about something. I know this is a stretch, but say it is possible that USSR could capture Southern France and/or Normandy-Bordeaux while France (Paris) is still in Axis hands. As such, USSR would get to use the Minor ICs and Naval Bases in these two territories, plus get the IPC value of these territories until France is liberated, at which time they revert to French control.
So, would the Soviet NO also apply to these two territories as well?
No. Neutral or Original Axis territories.
say it is possible that USSR could capture Southern France and/or Normandy-Bordeaux while France (Paris) is still in Axis hands. As such, USSR would get to use the Minor ICs and Naval Bases in these two territories, plus get the IPC value of these territories until France is liberated, at which time they revert to French control.
umm…. can I get a rules clarification here, but I dont think that is possible. I thought that since (in game anyway) the Soviet Union is part of the Allies, capturing French territory (France being part of the allies as well) wouldnt do anything but liberate them from Axis control, with the IPC’s being idle(along with the IC’s) until Paris is brought back on-line with the liberation of Paris, or did I miss something? Krieghund please help here
say it is possible that USSR could capture Southern France and/or Normandy-Bordeaux while France (Paris) is still in Axis hands. As such, USSR would get to use the Minor ICs and Naval Bases in these two territories, plus get the IPC value of these territories until France is liberated, at which time they revert to French control.
umm…. can I get a rules clarification here, but I dont think that is possible. I thought that since (in game anyway) the Soviet Union is part of the Allies, capturing French territory (France being part of the allies as well) wouldnt do anything but liberate them from Axis control, with the IPC’s being idle(along with the IC’s) until Paris is brought back on-line with the liberation of Paris, or did I miss something? Krieghund please help here
You never “capture” a friendly territory. You can walkin (if still under friendly control) or you liberate (the friendly territory is under ennemy control). The “liberator” can collect IPC of any territory liberated if the capitol is under ennemy control. As soon as the capitol is freed all “original” territories are return to original owner.
Example 1 : USA don’t collect IPC for France’s or UK’s territory in Africa if Axis never control it before.
Example 2 : If Paris is liberated, than all French territories under USA/UK/Anzac/Russian control are return to France the moment Paris is free.
The “liberator” can collect IPC of any territory liberated if the capitol is under ennemy control. As soon as the capitol is freed all “original” territories are return to original owner.
Example 1 : USA don’t collect IPC for France’s or UK’s territory in Africa if Axis never control it before.
Example 2 : If Paris is liberated, than all French territories under USA/UK/Anzac/Russian control are return to France the moment Paris is free.
……is this a new thing? :? I thought the rules specifically said that unless the capitol of is free the IPCs for that territory arent collected by the “liberating” force? Dont the new rules go to pains to mention that even IF British Indian forces liberate Egypt from the axis, they still dont get the money for it even if the Axis occupy London?
You bring another exception… India can never ever collect income from European Theater of war and, likewise, London never collect income from territories in Pacific theater of war.
In clear :
Paris is under Axis control, but Morocco still free, USA don’t collect income from walking in Morocco.
Paris is under Axis control, USA free Morocco from Axis control, USA put a control maker and collect 1… until Paris is free and therefore remove immediatly USA’s marker control. France will collect income from Morocca at their next turn.
Now about the UK exception.
London is free, if Egypt is liberated from Axis control than UK(London) will collect income of Egypt at their next turn.
London is under Axis control. If Egypt is liberated from Axis, that “Alliance Nation” will place its marker and collect income… EXCEPT if it’s UK(Calcutta) as Calcutta never collects from European theater of war, so in that case you don’t place a marker, you just remove the Axis marker from Egypt.
The “liberator” can collect IPC of any territory liberated if the capitol is under ennemy control. As soon as the capitol is freed all “original” territories are return to original owner.
Example 1 : USA don’t collect IPC for France’s or UK’s territory in Africa if Axis never control it before.
Example 2 : If Paris is liberated, than all French territories under USA/UK/Anzac/Russian control are return to France the moment Paris is free.……is this a new thing? :? I thought the rules specifically said that unless the capitol of is free the IPCs for that territory arent collected by the “liberating” force? Dont the new rules go to pains to mention that even IF British Indian forces liberate Egypt from the axis, they still don’t get the money for it even if the Axis occupy London?
I can’t find anything in Alpha 3 to dispute the OOB Rules, but they say the following:
If you capture a territory that was originally controlled by another member of your side you ‘liberate’ the territory. You don’t take control of it; instead, the orignal controller regains the territory and the national production level is adjusted. AA Guns, IC’s, AB, and/or NB in that territory revert to the original controller of the territory.
If the original controller’s (country whose territory you just liberated) capital is in enemy hands at the end of the turn in which you would otherwise have liberated the territory, you capture the territory, adjust your national production level, and you can use any AA Guns, IC’s, AB, and/or NB there until the orignal controller’s capital is liberated. The liberating player can’t use these newly liberated facilities until the player’s next turn.
Sorry if the rule was changed in any of the Alpha’s, just didn’t see anything in A+3, thought this might help.
Sorry, I fail to see how your post (Carnage) says otherwise than what I posted.
Paris is under Axis control, but Morocco still free, USA don’t collect income from walking in Morocco.
Paris is under Axis control, USA free Morocco from Axis control, USA put a control maker and collect 1… until Paris is free and therefore remove immediatly USA’s marker control. France will collect income from Morocca at their next turn.
I have never heard of this before, ever, is this new? I will still need confirmation from krieghund
Paris is under Axis control, but Morocco still free, USA don’t collect income from walking in Morocco.
Paris is under Axis control, USA free Morocco from Axis control, USA put a control maker and collect 1… until Paris is free and therefore remove immediatly USA’s marker control. France will collect income from Morocca at their next turn.I have never heard of this before, ever, is this new? I will still need confirmation from krieghund
hasn’t this always been like that?
Paris is under Axis control, but Morocco still free, USA don’t collect income from walking in Morocco.
Paris is under Axis control, USA free Morocco from Axis control, USA put a control maker and collect 1… until Paris is free and therefore remove immediatly USA’s marker control. France will collect income from Morocca at their next turn.I have never heard of this before, ever, is this new? I will still need confirmation from krieghund
Then, I suggest you post here : http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=24408.0
Krieghund is quick answering/confirming questions in the “Questions” thread.
@special:
Paris is under Axis control, but Morocco still free, USA don’t collect income from walking in Morocco.
Paris is under Axis control, USA free Morocco from Axis control, USA put a control maker and collect 1… until Paris is free and therefore remove immediatly USA’s marker control. France will collect income from Morocca at their next turn.I have never heard of this before, ever, is this new? I will still need confirmation from krieghund
hasn’t this always been like that?
In AAG40 games yes. Not sure about previous version (classic, AAAE, both 1942’s…)
Sorry, I fail to see how your post (Carnage) says otherwise than what I posted.
Sorry mate, didn’t realize I couldn’t respond to something you had? Thought this was one of them there open forums… Sorry if that offends your sense of forum .
Posting what the rules actually say will probably mean someone doesn’t have to dig out the rule book. I always do if someone hasn’t posted what the rules say. If the rules couldn’t be misconstrued so frequently I wouldn’t have to double check what could be someones opinion of said rule.
C
Sorry, I fail to see how your post (Carnage) says otherwise than what I posted.
Sorry mate, didn’t realize I couldn’t respond to something you had? Thought this was one of them there open forums… Sorry if that offends your sense of forum etiquette.
Posting what the rules actually say will probably mean someone doesn’t have to dig out the rule book. I always do if someone hasn’t posted what the rules say. If the rules couldn’t be misconstrued so frequently I wouldn’t have to double check what could be someones opinion of said rule.
Pretty sure Krieg and Gamerman don’t even need to pull out the rulebooks, I think they have the manuals and alpha rules memorized…complete with telling you where on each page to look. :roll:
