Just go read them lol
USA still gets a massive bonus when at war :P
the newest alpha is probably the last and is about as balanced as it can get
http://www.harrisgamedesign.com/phpBB3/viewtopic.php?f=40&t=6149
Odd question:
Are there any common house rules?
I tend to play without limits on the number of breakthroughs per turn…although that never matters.
I keep thinking that I’ll run out of questions for this game, but a new one always pops up…
According to the Alpha +3 details Larry published: “Major industrial complexes can only be built on originally controlled territories (this includes upgrading minor ones). Likewise they may not be upgraded when captured. Major industrial complexes are reduced to minor when captured.”
My question is this: Both Manchuria and Kiangsu are technically Chinese territories under Japanese control at the start of the game, and they both have an IPC value of 3. Is Japan allowed to build a major industrial complex on either of these territories since they are “originally controlled territories”, or is it prohibited from doing so since the territories are Chinese?
Kept looking around the forums for this question and never found it - I apologize if it has already been resolved.
Odd question:
Are there any common house rules?
I tend to play without limits on the number of breakthroughs per turn…although that never matters.
:-) That’s a great house rule. Get back to the old 80’s rules…. Roll triple 6’s and get 3 techs!
I think it would be a good idea to play with tech tokens a la AA50.
I keep thinking that I’ll run out of questions for this game, but a new one always pops up…
According to the Alpha +3 details Larry published: “Major industrial complexes can only be built on originally controlled territories (this includes upgrading minor ones). Likewise they may not be upgraded when captured. Major industrial complexes are reduced to minor when captured.”
My question is this: Both Manchuria and Kiangsu are technically Chinese territories under Japanese control at the start of the game, and they both have an IPC value of 3. Is Japan allowed to build a major industrial complex on either of these territories since they are “originally controlled territories”, or is it prohibited from doing so since the territories are Chinese?
Kept looking around the forums for this question and never found it - I apologize if it has already been resolved.
Yes, it’s been resolved relatively recently on this FAQ thread, but don’t worry - we don’t expect you to look through dozens of posts. Â If you have a question, just ask.
Manchuria and Kiangsu are in fact considered Chinese for these purposes. Â No Jap majors are allowed on these Chinese territories with Alpha3. Â Only on Korea. Â Go by the color of the territory.
That’s what I figured - thank you!
Any time
Could anyone state this Alpha +3 changed sub rule in a different way? I’m having a difficult time understanding exactly what it means:
“Also note that transports are not allowed to unload land units for an amphibious assault in a sea zone containing an enemy sub(s) belonging to a power with which they are at war unless at least one of his warships was also present in the sea zone at the end of the Combat Move phase.”
Does this mean that I can only do an amphibious assault if one of the sub owner’s warships was in the sea zone at the end of Combat Movement, or if one of MY warships was present then? I’m just very confused! :?
Moreover, why even change the rule?
Could anyone state this Alpha +3 changed sub rule in a different way? I’m having a difficult time understanding exactly what it means:
Absolutely. I can make this crystal clear for you.
“Also note that transports are not allowed to unload land units for an amphibious assault in a sea zone containing an enemy sub(s) belonging to a power with which they are at war unless at least one of his warships was also present in the sea zone at the end of the Combat Move phase.”
Does this mean that I can only do an amphibious assault if one of the sub owner’s warships was in the sea zone at the end of Combat Movement, or if one of MY warships was present then? I’m just very confused! :?
Yes you are. “at least one of his warships was also present” is referring to the attacker. Not the defender. The rule merely means that you can’t ignore enemy subs (you are at war with) with your naked (totally unescorted) transports.
Moreover, why even change the rule?
Because subs should be able to prevent unescorted transports from landing and making amphibious assaults. Does it make sense if you have 10 subs and your enemy waltzes up with one loaded transport and no escort, and can just ignore all your subs? The game developers didn’t think so.
So in other words, to be able to unload from a sea zone containing enemy subs, you must have a warship escorting the transport(s). (Submarine, Destroyer, Cruiser, Carrier, or Battleship) You would move this escort during the combat movement phase.
Although I don’t see a situation where this would arise–if one player is stupid enough to leave transports unescorted…
Although I don’t see a situation where this would arise–if one player is stupid enough to leave transports unescorted…
Oh, it could definitely arise. Many times a player wants to take a territory (could be an island) with an unescorted transport. Maybe it’s the last money island + the NO for Japan, for example. Maybe to escort it is to have all your escort ships annihilated. Maybe there is no escort ship available, and you have a surplus of transports. Etc etc
The rule is there for good reasons, guys. :-)
So in other words, to be able to unload from a sea zone containing enemy subs, you must have a surface warship escorting the transport(s). (Destroyer, Cruiser, Carrier, or Battleship) You would move this escort during the combat movement phase. Subs can’t escort transports safely. Must be surface warship - minimum, destroyer.
To be clear, in order to carry out an amphibious assault from a sea zone containing enemy subs, you must have a warship escorting the transport(s). It’s perfectly OK to offload in such a sea zone without escort in noncombat movement, and a sub will do just as well as a surface warship for an amphibious assault escort.
Although I don’t see a situation where this would arise–if one player is stupid enough to leave transports unescorted…
…they would die on the next enemy turn. This rule simply prevents unescorted transports from attacking (carrying out an amphibious assault) in enemy sub-infested waters before they die.
A sub can escort?! Did not catch that before - thanks. Erroneous post edited.
Actually, an unescorted transport may not even die before your next turn. Your enemy would have to have something in range to hit it, and they would have to assign the unit. Maybe the next turn they need every single plane to attack somewhere else.
Techroll and Oklahoma - Just be glad they scrapped the rules about how the transport has to be escorted along its path, and subs could stop it along its path…. :-P :-)
Cool - straightens that all up for me. Here’s another one: French Indo China’s IPCs constituent a part of the French economy at the start of the game. I know that Japan or an Allied nation can move in and take control of it. As I understand it, this would be the same as any territory being temporarily controlled by a friendly power while the original owner’s capital is under enemy occupation.
So my question is this: in the event that Paris is liberated, French Indo China would then revert back to French control as long as an Axis player hasn’t captured it, right? I assume this is the case, but just wanted to make sure there wasn’t some unique about FIC that I wasn’t aware of.
Also - for Japan to occupy FIC would technically require a declaration of war by Japan against France, wouldn’t it?
Cool - straightens that all up for me. Here’s another one: French Indo China’s IPCs constituent a part of the French economy at the start of the game. I know that Japan or an Allied nation can move in and take control of it.
An Allied nation can take control of it if Paris is controlled by the Axis, yes.
As I understand it, this would be the same as any territory being temporarily controlled by a friendly power while the original owner’s capital is under enemy occupation.
Right
So my question is this: in the event that Paris is liberated, French Indo China would then revert back to French control as long as an Axis player hasn’t captured it, right?
Yes
I assume this is the case, but just wanted to make sure there wasn’t some unique about FIC that I wasn’t aware of.
FIC is more of a “special case” if you are playing Pacific 1940 alone.
Also - for Japan to occupy FIC would technically require a declaration of war by Japan against France, wouldn’t it?
Yes. But this is no big deal, because it doesn’t affect the USA, or the status between Japan and ANZAC/UK.
In the current Alpha 3 rules, if London is captured, is the USSR allowed to declare war?
@SAS:
In the current Alpha 3 rules, if London is captured, is the USSR allowed to declare war?
IIRC yes
French Indo China’s IPCs constituent a part of the French economy at the start of the game. I know that Japan or an Allied nation can move in and take control of it.
An Allied nation can take control of it if Paris is controlled by the Axis, yes.
To be clear, an Allied power can only take control of a French territory by recapturing it from the Axis while Paris is held by an Axis power. French territories get no special treatment.
FIC is more of a “special case” if you are playing Pacific 1940 alone.
The way in which it’s a special case is that France’s capital is considered to be enemy-held for the duration of the game. Allied powers may not take control of it except by recapturing it from Japan.
To be clear, an Allied power can only take control of a French territory by recapturing it from the Axis while Paris is held by an Axis power. French territories get no special treatment.
So that I understand: While Paris is under Germany’s control, I could land American units in Morocco but would only control the territory (i.e. acquire its IPC value) if Morocco was under Axis control. FIC would be the same situation. So the rule is that, assuming their capital has been captured, I can’t just move Allied units into French territories (or any friendly territory) and acquire them. I can only control the territories if I liberate them from Axis control.
The exception to this is rule would be the Dutch territories, correct? As the UK or ANZAC, I could just move into Java during noncombat movement and acquire them? Or, is it the same situation as above where I must first liberate them?
To be clear, an Allied power can only take control of a French territory by recapturing it from the Axis while Paris is held by an Axis power. French territories get no special treatment.
So that I understand: While Paris is under Germany’s control, I could land American units in Morocco but would only control the territory (i.e. acquire its IPC value) if Morocco was under Axis control. FIC would be the same situation. So the rule is that, assuming their capital has been captured, I can’t just move Allied units into French territories (or any friendly territory) and acquire them. I can only control the territories if I liberate them from Axis control.
Exactly. Same as all the previous versions of Axis and Allies. When an Ally’s capital falls, other powers can only control those territories and collect income if they take them away from the other side.
The exception to this is rule would be the Dutch territories, correct? As the UK or ANZAC, I could just move into Java during noncombat movement and acquire them? Or, is it the same situation as above where I must first liberate them? Â
Well, since the Dutch are not a playable power and their capital is not significant, it’s not really an exception. France is a playable power with a capital, so normal capital capture rules apply.
Yes, UK or ANZAC can take control of Dutch territories by noncomming into them. No, you do not have to be liberating them.
In the event that one of the Dutch territories is taken over by one of the Allies through noncom, then later captured by Japan, whose control would they if they are liberated by a different Allied power? For instance, Java is ANZAC, then captured by Japan, then liberated by the UK. Would the 4 IPCs now be part of the UK or would they return to ANZAC?