I saw it somewhere on line about 2 weeks ago. Try google search. I’ll post link if i come across it again
AAG40 FAQ
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Although I don’t see a situation where this would arise–if one player is stupid enough to leave transports unescorted…
Oh, it could definitely arise. Many times a player wants to take a territory (could be an island) with an unescorted transport. Maybe it’s the last money island + the NO for Japan, for example. Maybe to escort it is to have all your escort ships annihilated. Maybe there is no escort ship available, and you have a surplus of transports. Etc etc
The rule is there for good reasons, guys. :-)
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So in other words, to be able to unload from a sea zone containing enemy subs, you must have a surface warship escorting the transport(s). (Destroyer, Cruiser, Carrier, or Battleship) You would move this escort during the combat movement phase. Subs can’t escort transports safely. Must be surface warship - minimum, destroyer.
To be clear, in order to carry out an amphibious assault from a sea zone containing enemy subs, you must have a warship escorting the transport(s). It’s perfectly OK to offload in such a sea zone without escort in noncombat movement, and a sub will do just as well as a surface warship for an amphibious assault escort.
Although I don’t see a situation where this would arise–if one player is stupid enough to leave transports unescorted…
…they would die on the next enemy turn. This rule simply prevents unescorted transports from attacking (carrying out an amphibious assault) in enemy sub-infested waters before they die.
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A sub can escort?! Did not catch that before - thanks. Erroneous post edited.
Actually, an unescorted transport may not even die before your next turn. Your enemy would have to have something in range to hit it, and they would have to assign the unit. Maybe the next turn they need every single plane to attack somewhere else.
Techroll and Oklahoma - Just be glad they scrapped the rules about how the transport has to be escorted along its path, and subs could stop it along its path…. :-P :-)
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Cool - straightens that all up for me. Here’s another one: French Indo China’s IPCs constituent a part of the French economy at the start of the game. I know that Japan or an Allied nation can move in and take control of it. As I understand it, this would be the same as any territory being temporarily controlled by a friendly power while the original owner’s capital is under enemy occupation.
So my question is this: in the event that Paris is liberated, French Indo China would then revert back to French control as long as an Axis player hasn’t captured it, right? I assume this is the case, but just wanted to make sure there wasn’t some unique about FIC that I wasn’t aware of.
Also - for Japan to occupy FIC would technically require a declaration of war by Japan against France, wouldn’t it?
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Cool - straightens that all up for me. Here’s another one: French Indo China’s IPCs constituent a part of the French economy at the start of the game. I know that Japan or an Allied nation can move in and take control of it.
An Allied nation can take control of it if Paris is controlled by the Axis, yes.
As I understand it, this would be the same as any territory being temporarily controlled by a friendly power while the original owner’s capital is under enemy occupation.
Right
So my question is this: in the event that Paris is liberated, French Indo China would then revert back to French control as long as an Axis player hasn’t captured it, right?
Yes
I assume this is the case, but just wanted to make sure there wasn’t some unique about FIC that I wasn’t aware of.
FIC is more of a “special case” if you are playing Pacific 1940 alone.
Also - for Japan to occupy FIC would technically require a declaration of war by Japan against France, wouldn’t it?
Yes. But this is no big deal, because it doesn’t affect the USA, or the status between Japan and ANZAC/UK.
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In the current Alpha 3 rules, if London is captured, is the USSR allowed to declare war?
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@SAS:
In the current Alpha 3 rules, if London is captured, is the USSR allowed to declare war?
IIRC yes
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French Indo China’s IPCs constituent a part of the French economy at the start of the game. I know that Japan or an Allied nation can move in and take control of it.
An Allied nation can take control of it if Paris is controlled by the Axis, yes.
To be clear, an Allied power can only take control of a French territory by recapturing it from the Axis while Paris is held by an Axis power. French territories get no special treatment.
FIC is more of a “special case” if you are playing Pacific 1940 alone.
The way in which it’s a special case is that France’s capital is considered to be enemy-held for the duration of the game. Allied powers may not take control of it except by recapturing it from Japan.
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To be clear, an Allied power can only take control of a French territory by recapturing it from the Axis while Paris is held by an Axis power. French territories get no special treatment.
So that I understand: While Paris is under Germany’s control, I could land American units in Morocco but would only control the territory (i.e. acquire its IPC value) if Morocco was under Axis control. FIC would be the same situation. So the rule is that, assuming their capital has been captured, I can’t just move Allied units into French territories (or any friendly territory) and acquire them. I can only control the territories if I liberate them from Axis control.
The exception to this is rule would be the Dutch territories, correct? As the UK or ANZAC, I could just move into Java during noncombat movement and acquire them? Or, is it the same situation as above where I must first liberate them?
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To be clear, an Allied power can only take control of a French territory by recapturing it from the Axis while Paris is held by an Axis power. French territories get no special treatment.
So that I understand: While Paris is under Germany’s control, I could land American units in Morocco but would only control the territory (i.e. acquire its IPC value) if Morocco was under Axis control. FIC would be the same situation. So the rule is that, assuming their capital has been captured, I can’t just move Allied units into French territories (or any friendly territory) and acquire them. I can only control the territories if I liberate them from Axis control.
Exactly. Same as all the previous versions of Axis and Allies. When an Ally’s capital falls, other powers can only control those territories and collect income if they take them away from the other side.
The exception to this is rule would be the Dutch territories, correct? As the UK or ANZAC, I could just move into Java during noncombat movement and acquire them? Or, is it the same situation as above where I must first liberate them? Â
Well, since the Dutch are not a playable power and their capital is not significant, it’s not really an exception. France is a playable power with a capital, so normal capital capture rules apply.
Yes, UK or ANZAC can take control of Dutch territories by noncomming into them. No, you do not have to be liberating them. -
In the event that one of the Dutch territories is taken over by one of the Allies through noncom, then later captured by Japan, whose control would they if they are liberated by a different Allied power? For instance, Java is ANZAC, then captured by Japan, then liberated by the UK. Would the 4 IPCs now be part of the UK or would they return to ANZAC?
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The liberating power would take control, no matter which power that is. With the exception that UK/ANZAC can take control of them peacefully, Dutch territories are treated in the same way as territories of a power whose capital is held by the enemy.
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Hi all,
Quick question: Is Japan allowed to move their fleet during NC phase to SZ 39?
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I don’t remember which one SZ 39 is, but as long as it’s more than 2 from West US it’s ok.
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SZ 39 is bordering India.
So basically Japan could move its entire fleet right in front of india and then declare war and attack? -
Yup, it could. Don’t really get it, but it is the way it is.
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Is Japan allowed to sit there with loaded transports?
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Yes, but if you aren’t careful UK will destroy them.
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If you’re not at war with the other power, then the other power’s ships are not considered hostile.
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If you’re not at war with the other power, then the other power’s ships are not considered hostile.
I think he just meant that as Japan, you cannot assume the UK will not attack lightly guarded, loaded transports, if given a chance.
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