AAG40 FAQ

@gamerman01:

Which made me realize - the Russian at war NO should also require that USA is at war.  That’s where the money came from, and why Z125 and Archangel have to be clear.  But yet it is possible for USSR to collect this NO 4 times with the US being neutral.

US aid to the USSR began in June 1941, immediately after it was attacked by Germany, and six months before the US entered the war.

As far as the facilities being considered units:
I wouldn’t have picked that up either. Honestly though I only skimmed the rule book (very impressed by the way). Common sense would have taken over however and told me you should also have to take away there ability to mobilize. After rereading it though I see where Krieghund is coming from. They do call them units when purchasing, and mobilizing, and it is clearly under “Unit Profiles”. Some times when you have to link several things together to get the correct interpretation, things get lost. It still would have been clearer to just simply include allied facilities in Africa in the NO to remove any question.

As far as the Russians can be on its allies tt when only at war w/Japan:
I like that ability, but I’m sure it wouldn’t fly with the historical sector. There are other things to consider here too. You could put a Russian ftr on Scotland R1 to force Germany to go to war early if it wants to invade Scotland (which it won’t). Then that ftr could be on England R2 for def (another 4) for a G3 Sea Lion, allowing Russia to start attacks (early) R3 on Germany. It might not make much difference if Germany was planning a G3 Barbarossa, but if Germany is going Sea Lion, it may want to wait til G4 to attack Russia. Plus Russia would get it’s war time 5 ipc bonus R3 as well (plus its 2 free inf in E40). Plus the Russian ftr on England throws the G3 Sea Lion out the window. Then there’s some scenarios of putting the Russian ftr on a UK carrier, that would put Germany/Italy in the same circumstances. In any event it could be a benefit to the allies, but your right it does cost Russia the use of a ftr possibly, so would it be worth it in the long run.

Edit: I hope you don’t rule on this to fast, and take the ability away. I want to catch my opponents off guard first. We’ve talked about Egypt, but not Scotland. My German opponents seem to like to build navy G1 :evil:

The funny soviet trick sending units to UK when is not yet at war with West Axis but is at war with Japan … one more reason to make a non-agression pact USSR-Japan rule

Seriously, I have played the game and I cannot see any reason to not DOW Japan USSR1 (USSR2 as much) … and so, no reason to not DOW USSR Japan 1 if not at war yet. In fact, there are many many incentives. It’s totally ridiculous that Japan and USSR start the game at war (even if not ‘officially’) before than the USSR-Germany and USA-Japan wars

A non-agression official rule is a must. A economic penalty for the attacker would work (maybe 15-20 IPCs?) I don’t know how Larry cannot see this … I guess that Italy and UK players could also make a unofficial non-agression pact for that matter, but they would still start at war without a official rule  :-P

Yeah but a Soviet DOW on Japan does allow Russia to invade the Euro neutrals (Krieg already ruled on this), that’s kinda why there’s even a discussion about also allowing Russia into all its allies tt’s (or ships) when only at war w/Japan (rules don’t make it illegal). Testers didn’t see this coming, and Krieghund is thinking about which way to go.

@kungfujew:

If I may be so bold, generally things that happen in the European theater only affect the European theater and vice versa with Russia, so I can’t see that “egypt plane” move as being legal.  If being at war with Japan doesn’t allow the USSR to collect their wartime NO, and if being at war with Japan doesn’t allow them to attack Germany/Italy and if being at war with Japan doesn’t let Russia invade European neutrals then it shouldn’t let them move into a European “ally” until at war in Europe.  As for historically… if you remember Russia had a pact with Germany and until Germany broke it with their invasion of the USSR I don’t really think that Britain regarded Russia as anything close to an ally.  Also, Russia fought the Japs in real life too, and I don’t think that the brits cozied up to them in Europe then either.

So if the examples at the start of the post don’t convince you, then I think the historical reality of the time, which the designers took such pains to include with the “political situation”, should certainly answer that question.  Britain and Russia were not allies until the war with Germany broke out and I don’t think anything that happened in the pacific would have made that any different.

I agree completely.  The more I think about this, the more I think it will be addressed in the errata.  At least I’ll push for it.

@WILD:

Yeah but a Soviet DOW on Japan does allow Russia to invade the Euro neutrals (Krieg already ruled on this), that’s kinda why there’s even a discussion about also allowing Russia into all its allies tt’s (or ships) when only at war w/Japan (rules don’t make it illegal). Testers didn’t see this coming, and Krieghund is thinking about which way to go.

Invading neutrals is a little bit different than moving units into another power’s territories.  We definitely saw that and allowed it to happen.  After all, the USSR invaded several Eastern European countries as part of its agreement with Germany.

@Krieghund:

@kungfujew:

If I may be so bold, generally things that happen in the European theater only affect the European theater and vice versa with Russia, so I can’t see that “egypt plane” move as being legal.  If being at war with Japan doesn’t allow the USSR to collect their wartime NO, and if being at war with Japan doesn’t allow them to attack Germany/Italy and if being at war with Japan doesn’t let Russia invade European neutrals then it shouldn’t let them move into a European “ally” until at war in Europe.  As for historically… if you remember Russia had a pact with Germany and until Germany broke it with their invasion of the USSR I don’t really think that Britain regarded Russia as anything close to an ally.  Also, Russia fought the Japs in real life too, and I don’t think that the brits cozied up to them in Europe then either.

So if the examples at the start of the post don’t convince you, then I think the historical reality of the time, which the designers took such pains to include with the “political situation”, should certainly answer that question.  Britain and Russia were not allies until the war with Germany broke out and I don’t think anything that happened in the pacific would have made that any different.

I agree completely.  The more I think about this, the more I think it will be addressed in the errata.  At least I’ll push for it.

@WILD:

Yeah but a Soviet DOW on Japan does allow Russia to invade the Euro neutrals (Krieg already ruled on this), that’s kinda why there’s even a discussion about also allowing Russia into all its allies tt’s (or ships) when only at war w/Japan (rules don’t make it illegal). Testers didn’t see this coming, and Krieghund is thinking about which way to go.

Invading neutrals is a little bit different than moving units into another power’s territories.  We definitely saw that and allowed it to happen.  After all, the USSR invaded several Eastern European countries as part of its agreement with Germany.

I have no problem w/Russia being able to invade the neutrals while still neutral (to Euro axis). Furthermore I don’t think it should have to declare war on Japan to do it (it is kinda corny). War w/Jap would have nothing to do with the Euro neutrals. Actually if Russia went to war w/Jap it might not tie up the resources to invade the Euro neutrals.
Just let Russia invade the neutrals it wants to no strings attached.

Getting back to Russia being able to put units into its allies tt or ships before its at war w/ a Euro axis (or a common enemy) will most likely be dis allowed (and I’m good with that).  I’m simply pointing out some of the places that Russia can get, and the effect they could have if it is allowed. Like def Egypt, India, Scotland, or England itself. It could halt a J3 India crush, stop Italy from getting Egypt, or force Germany to abort a Sea Lion (which is risky anyway). If these scenarios were not play tested w/this in mind, it should be disallowed IMO because it sways the out come of the fore mentioned battles.

@Flashman:

If the setup was historically accurate, the Baltic States would be neutral and Bessarabia part of neutral Romania; this would give the Russians something to do R1.  Also, Persia should be Pro-Axis giving them something to think about on their southern border.

But I don’t think Soviet units should EVER be allowed to share territory with other Allies.  Even when at war ships can share the same sz, but not fight together.  Similarly I’d allow US/UK units to land in Russia on NCM, but not defend with them if the tt is attacked. Stalin simply didn’t want to share the glory with anyone else.  He’d take your money but he wouldn’t plough your path for you. He didn’t even help the Polish partisans in the Warsaw uprising.

To balance, the same thing should apply to Japan in regard to German and Italian units and tts, as there was practically no military cooperation between Japan and the Euro Axis.

In other words Japan and the USSR should be considered to have allies only in the sense that they have enemies-in-common with other powers.  They are still members of the two great alliances for game victory purposes, but are essentially fighting different wars.  Some monetary aid to Russia from the West is authentic, but then Germany got huge non-military aid from Russia until it decided to invade the place…

How does that work? If Z125 has 2 British DD’s and a Russian SS, and Germany attacks it, it can say it just wants to attack one and ignore the other? What about in a Russian territory? If Germany kills the Russian units and there are 2 british ftrs, does Germany capture the territory?

@gamerman01:

@calvinhobbesliker:

How does that work? If Z125 has 2 British DD’s and a Russian SS, and Germany attacks it, it can say it just wants to attack one and ignore the other? What about in a Russian territory? If Germany kills the Russian units and there are 2 british ftrs, does Germany capture the territory?

Yes, Calvin, you always ignore sea units of powers with which you are not at war.

You are not allowed (page 15 sidebar) to attack a territory with ground or air units of a power with which you are not at war.  That’s the issue here.  If Russia lands a plane in London, Germany must declare war on Russia to attack London.

I thought that’s why you were making a beeline for Egypt with your Russian tank in our game!  I also half expected you to land a plane in Egypt to exploit the rule.  Guess you didn’t know about it, to even exploit it.  :-)

See, Krieg?  The reason it wasn’t an issue in my game was because calvin didn’t realize how this rule worked.  :lol:

No, it’s because I needed that mech and tank in London and I didn’t want to risk planes

Sorry, I meant Russia-not London

If a ftr’s carrier is destroyed on the opponent’s combat move, it must land one space away. Do they decide where to land before or after the noncombat moves of the attacker?

Not 100% sure, but I think the def ftr would land after all combat is complete, and before the aggressors non combat moves.

@calvinhobbesliker:

If a ftr’s carrier is destroyed on the opponent’s combat move, it must land one space away. Do they decide where to land before or after the noncombat moves of the attacker?

Yes, the owner of the fighter decides.

AAE40 rulebook pg.29>AirCraft Carriers>second to last paragraph on Carriers.

@BadSpeller:

@calvinhobbesliker:

If a ftr’s carrier is destroyed on the opponent’s combat move, it must land one space away. Do they decide where to land before or after the noncombat moves of the attacker?

Yes, the owner of the fighter decides.

AAE40 rulebook pg.29>AirCraft Carriers>second to last paragraph on Carriers.

That’s not what I was asking. I’m asking if they decide before or after the attacker’s noncombat move

@calvinhobbesliker:

@BadSpeller:

@calvinhobbesliker:

If a ftr’s carrier is destroyed on the opponent’s combat move, it must land one space away. Do they decide where to land before or after the noncombat moves of the attacker?

Yes, the owner of the fighter decides.

AAE40 rulebook pg.29>AirCraft Carriers>second to last paragraph on Carriers.

That’s not what I was asking. I’m asking if they decide before or after the attacker’s noncombat move

And that question is answered in the paragraph I refered to.

I have a question regarding landing fighters on a newly built carrier.  I read through this thread and did not see it previously answered.

This was the situation in our game the other night.  German had built some transports in sea zone 113 and did not protect them with any surface ships.  The only way that UK could possibly destroy them was to build a carrier and fly a fighter from London to sea zone 113, and then land the fighter on the newly built carrier outside of London in sea zone 110.  Is this a valid move?  I thought it was, but the line in the rules that we found would seem to indicate otherwise, and the group voted me down.

“Any air units that are not in an eligible landing space by the end of the Noncombat Move phase are destroyed (note that this can include a sea zone in which a new carrier will be placed during the Mobilize New Units phase” -pg 28 AAE.

This phasing is confusing to me.  I know that right above this line it says that ‘Landing doesn’t actually occur until the Mobilize New Units phase’, but then it follows that by saying that air units are destroyed if they are not in an eligible landing space at the end of noncombat move.  I would appreciate a clarification.

Great game and rulebook otherwise so far.  We loved it.

@darthvaderlikescheese:

I have a question regarding landing fighters on a newly built carrier.  I read through this thread and did not see it previously answered.

This was the situation in our game the other night.  German had built some transports in sea zone 113 and did not protect them with any surface ships.  The only way that UK could possibly destroy them was to build a carrier and fly a fighter from London to sea zone 113, and then land the fighter on the newly built carrier outside of London in sea zone 110.  Is this a valid move?  I thought it was, but the line in the rules that we found would seem to indicate otherwise, and the group voted me down.

“Any air units that are not in an eligible landing space by the end of the Noncombat Move phase are destroyed (note that this can include a sea zone in which a new carrier will be placed during the Mobilize New Units phase” -pg 28 AAE.

This phasing is confusing to me.  I know that right above this line it says that ‘Landing doesn’t actually occur until the Mobilize New Units phase’, but then it follows that by saying that air units are destroyed if they are not in an eligible landing space at the end of noncombat move.  I would appreciate a clarification.

Great game and rulebook otherwise so far.  We loved it.

Well, the definition of “eligible landing space” includes a sea zone where a carrier will be built in the Mobilize new units phase