@the_good_captain Yes, that’s correct.
Axis and Allies 1914 FAQ/Question and Answer Thread
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You may place naval units regardless if enemies have units there or not. No battle occurs. Enemy may attack it on his/her turn or move away. You simply have to control the adjacent territories (land spaces are territories, sea spaces are sea zones).
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Welcome. defiant!
Cow is correct. These errata from the FAQ should help clear it up:
Page 11, Spaces on the Game Board, Sea Zones: The third sentence of the second paragraph should read “The naval base is controlled by the power that controls the territory. If the territory is contested, the naval base is controlled by the power that originally controlled the territory (unless its capital is controlled by the enemy, in which case no one controls it). Naval bases allow the controlling power to mobilize new sea units (original territories only) and repair its battleships in the corresponding sea zone.”
Page 23, Phase 4: Mobilize New Units: The first sentence of the second paragraph should read “Place all of your new sea units in any sea zone that has a naval base that you have controlled since the beginning of your turn and is located in a territory that you originally controlled (has only your power’s emblem).”
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THe rule book does not state anything about building new units in an enemy capitol that you conquered. So am I correct in assuming that the French cannot build units in Berlin even after they have captured it and held it for a round?
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That’s correct.
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Krieghund,
I’m very sorry if this has been asked/answered previously. I just picked up AA1914 and really enjoyed it, my group played our first game last night (~8hrs with Allied Victory in Berlin & Constantinople). My question is about Fighters.
We played the Fighter Strafe as a non-defendable attack, was this correct? Is it the same as a Sub’s First-Strike capability in other A&A editions?
I was surprised to not find it asked about more online, and then even more surprised to not find it in the official FAQ. This morning, I went over page 19 of the rulebook very carefully, and I understood the passage on Step 5: Remove Casualties “Each player can select any unit in their attacking or defending force as a casualty, including fighters.” to mean that they are defendable.
If the attacker has the fighters, they can remove them as casualties when the defends rolls, yes? Meaning that the strafe run does NOT instantly remove these hits from the battle? Otherwise, why would/could the attacker choose fighters as casualties, unless they are simply participating in the land battle now…right?
Thanks for all your help!
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Welcome, SOUP76!
Strafing fighters are treated in exactly the same way as land units in steps 3 through 5 of the combat sequence. They roll to hit (and their casualties are inflicted) at the same time as other units, and they can be taken as casualties (in fact, they must if the only alternative is the last remaining infantry unit of that power).
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Awesome! Thanks for the clarification!
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alright I am currently engaged in a most epic struggle :evil: britain has 2 damaged battleships and a sub in sea zone 11 I also have a damaged battleship in seazone 11.
now my question is this the rulebook states that i do not have to attack them so can I use 2 transports in seazone 12 to transport critical art. pieces to berlin since this does not involve an amphibious reinforcement or attack :?
any help on this would be stellar cheers
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gtsg,
If you load the transports in SZ12 and then move them into SZ11…you would have to engage in warfare since SZ11 would be a hostile sea zone (Rulebook: Page 11). The battleships are surface warships and you would need to conduct combat before you could offload the critical artillery (Rulebook: Page 16) into Berlin.
Hope this helps!
-Soup
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ok but i can move my 2 transports without any cargo to the protection of my BB (since it will be repaired and joined with fresh navy) without an attack on the british squadron :| cheers
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gtsg,
Once you move those transports into the SZ11 and leave them along with the battleship, you will engage in combat with the british battleships.
Surface warships cannot other surface warships, and the transports would be claimed last in any casualty count.
-Soup
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refering to page 20 of the rule book “when you have warships (not transports) in a seazone containing enemy ships, you can elect to attack them or not attack them” which in my opinion means you always have a choice between attack or doing nothing or moving out.
so I could move these transports in since there is a warship of the germans to protect it and the transports have no combat value so are not considered warships as the rules see them.
or can this only be used with ships that start the round in hostile seazones :| :-D
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gtsg,
That passage on Page 20 in within the “Order of Play” section of the book…and it immediately follows the “Step 6 Conclude Combat” (on Page 19). Because of this, I believe that passage is referring to after the actual dice roll. After the first round of dice roll…you can decide to either continue or stop (this is in comparison to the land battles, which only have a round).
Someone of more official status (i.e. Krieghund) may have greater insight…but I believe you will have at least one round of combat in that sea zone.
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You are never required to attack in a sea zone unless you are attempting an amphibious assault or reinforcement from it.
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Thanks Krieghund! I stand corrected.
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ok mr krieghund, so I can In theory use my transports to deploy 4 art. pieces from karelia to berlin since it is neither enemy contolled or contested is this correct.
or am I limited to simply moving my transports without cargo to the protection of my german fleet sharing a seazone with a british naval squadron :-D cheers
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ok found it on page 17 friendly territory alo counts as amphibious reinforcement ok thanks and cheers
the german high seas fleet has its work cut out for it hehehe :evil:
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Q: 1) if AU attacks serbian with 1 Inf and lost it. Are the Russian inf able to go where they want on turn 1 ? and russian collect income from there.
and if germany attacks holland and lost all and the standing army would be russian there…the same ?
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Serbia is activated as soon as it is attacked, so Russian units are placed there and Serbia becomes in effect Russian tt.
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Q: 1) if AU attacks serbian with 1 Inf and lost it. Are the Russian inf able to go where they want on turn 1 ? and russian collect income from there.
See Flashman’s answer.
and if germany attacks holland and lost all and the standing army would be russian there…the same ?
Yes. Even though Holland is a neutral power, control would go to Russia under these circumstances, since it’s the only power with units remaining there.