Global on the way for me!!! … in four days :-(
Anyways when it does come, can I use A@A revised pieces/IPC’s for global?
Global on the way for me!!! … in four days :-(
Anyways when it does come, can I use A@A revised pieces/IPC’s for global?
No one’s stopping you.
I’m using Classic IPC’s for global. AA50 doesn’t have enough 10’s, but my 20 year old Classic set does (and it has way more 5’s than you’ll ever need :roll:)
Just curious, reading page 9 AAE40 rulebook. If Italy declares war on USSR, it appears USSR can declare war on Germany. Is that how you read it?
Page 10 is clear about the US being able to declare war “on any and all axis powers.” (after it is declared on by one axis) but page 9 is ambiguous about USSR. After all, USSR would not need to declare against Italy since it is already at war in the above question.
The reason I asked, I was curious about Italy declaring war, then before USSR’s turn, Germany moves into a “friendly” Italian controlled territory within USSR while not being at war with them. It does not matter if USSR is able to declare war, however, if it is not able to declare against Germany, would it be able to counter attack a zone with German units? Would it simply ignore the German units and share the zone with them?
Just something to think about.
Just curious, reading page 9 AAE40 rulebook. If Italy declares war on USSR, it appears USSR can declare war on Germany. Is that how you read it?
Page 10 is clear about the US being able to declare war “on any and all axis powers.” (after it is declared on by one axis) but page 9 is ambiguous about USSR. After all, USSR would not need to declare against Italy since it is already at war in the above question.
The reason I asked, I was curious about Italy declaring war, then before USSR’s turn, Germany moves into a “friendly” Italian controlled territory within USSR while not being at war with them. It does not matter if USSR is able to declare war, however, if it is not able to declare against Germany, would it be able to counter attack a zone with German units? Would it simply ignore the German units and share the zone with them?
Just something to think about.
You got the wording for the US conditions wrong (might be a typo): “it may declare war on any or all Axis powers.”
The USSR conditions say: “the SU may not declare war on any Axis power before its 4th turn unless an Axis power declares war on it first”. Or, if you rewrite it: if an Axis power declares war on the USSR before its 4th turn, the USSR may declare war on any Axis power.
On the situation you mentioned above, of Italy declaring war and taking an Russian territory with German units moving there, the USSR cannot attack that territory without a DoW made against Germany. The reason is on page 15 (on the black box regarding neutral powers): “A power can’t attack a territory controlled by or containing units belonging to a power with which it is not at war”.
The USSR conditions say: “the SU may not declare war on any Axis power before its 4th turn unless an Axis power declares war on it first”. Or, if you rewrite it: if an Axis power declares war on the USSR before its 4th turn, the USSR may declare war on any Axis power.
You misquoted the rulebook. On page 33 it says “The SU may not declare war on any European Axis power before turn four unless first declared war upon by a European Axis power.”
The way you wrote it, the Soviet Union could declare war on Germany and Italy as soon as Japan declares war on the Soviet Union, which is NOT the case. When you quote the rulebook, please quote it exactly!
It appears then, that JamesAleman has a point. Italy could declare war on the SU and take territory. Then Germany could move into the Italian controlled original Soviet territory without declaring war, thereby collecting the “at peace” NO one more time. On Russia’s turn, they would have no reason not to declare war on Germany, and they are entitled to do just that. Then G won’t get the NO anymore, and R can attack G/I shared TT.
The USSR conditions say: “the SU may not declare war on any Axis power before its 4th turn unless an Axis power declares war on it first”. Or, if you rewrite it: if an Axis power declares war on the USSR before its 4th turn, the USSR may declare war on any Axis power.
You misquoted the rulebook. On page 33 it says “The SU may not declare war on any European Axis power before turn four unless first declared war upon by a European Axis power.”
The way you wrote it, the Soviet Union could declare war on Germany and Italy as soon as Japan declares war on the Soviet Union, which is NOT the case. When you quote the rulebook, please quote it exactly!
JamesAleman was quoting from page 9 (and so was I), which refers to the Europe game, thus my quote is correct. The question belongs to the AAE forum (I just noticed it when you mentioned page 33) but there isn’t there a FAQ regarding AAE so I guess it makes sense to ask it here.
JamesAleman was quoting from page 9 (and so was I), which refers to the Europe game, thus my quote is correct. The question belongs to the AAE forum (I just noticed it when you mentioned page 33) but there isn’t there a FAQ regarding AAE so I guess it makes sense to ask it here.
Ah, yes, thanks for patiently clearing up the difference. I started this thread, and if you guys play E40 you could start a FAQ thread in the E40 forums just as I started this one here. When you ask questions on this thread I assume you are asking global questions.
Ah, yes, thanks for patiently clearing up the difference. I started this thread, and if you guys play E40 you could start a FAQ thread in the E40 forums just as I started this one here. When you ask questions on this thread I assume you are asking global questions.
You assume correctly but from what I’ve read most questions asked here are relevant to both AAE and AAG regarding movement/territories/units/etc. When there is a specific question asked for one of the games it usually regards the political rules (like JamesAleman’s query).
I guess that’s why no one thought of starting a FAQ for AAE yet: the AAG FAQ covers it all :)
You assume correctly but from what I’ve read most questions asked here are relevant to both AAE and AAG regarding movement/territories/units/etc. When there is a specific question asked for one of the games it usually regards the political rules (like JamesAleman’s query).
I guess that’s why no one thought of starting a FAQ for AAE yet: the AAG FAQ covers it all :)
Right. I need to try out E40 sometime - I bet it’s really fun. I will not go back to P40, however, because the turn order is totally different than 1940 world-wide. With E40 the turn order is the same, so it won’t screw me up to play E40 as much (just have to keep the different NO’s straight and stuff).
I just scanned all 31 or so pages of this thread to see if this question had been asked yet and I didn’t see it (hope I just didn’t miss it) as there have been a lot of repeat questions…
Germany has an NO for not being at war with the USSR. Is this NO only ever in effect in the first turns until war is initially declared between those two powers, or is it possible to get it back later on. If it is possible what exactly would the conditions be? I should think that if Moscow is under Axis Occupation AND there is not a SINGLE USSR piece left on the board that would imply that the USSR is out of the game until another Ally can bring them back in, and as such, Germany is no longer at war with them, and so would collect the 5 IPC NO. Is this just wishful thinking or is there something to it? Maybe it’d have to be taken a step further and there could not be a SINGLE USSR territory not under another power’s or even exclusively Axis control in order to no longer be in a state of war with them. Or are you simply considered to always be at war with a power, even if they are literally blown off the map…?
Or are you simply considered to always be at war with a power, even if they are literally blown off the map…?
Yes, that’s right.
So the most possible times for Germany to collect that NO is for 4 turns, assuming Russia always declares war on Euro Axis on R4 to get their NO and to stop the German NO.
No such thing as undoing a DOW, and all DOW’s are reciprocal.
Thank you Gamerman! It saddens me, but it is certainly not something that will ever come up very often anyways, so np! :lol:
Thank you Gamerman! It saddens me, but it is certainly not something that will ever come up very often anyways, so np! :lol:
Yeah, would be pretty sweet to get your 5 IPC NO after blowing Russia off the map (yep! Not at war with them anymore!). Only problem is, it represents trade from Russia. No Russia, no trade. :evil:
If Euro UK successfully rolls research, does Pacific UK receive it as well and vise versa? I’m not sure if they are counted as completely separate powers apart from having a separate economy.
If Euro UK successfully rolls research, does Pacific UK receive it as well and vise versa? I’m not sure if they are counted as completely separate powers apart from having a separate economy.
Yes, they share tech
If Euro UK successfully rolls research, does Pacific UK receive it as well and vise versa? I’m not sure if they are counted as completely separate powers apart from having a separate economy.
The UK is run as one power except for collecting income, purchasing new units, and some weird rules when a capital falls.
Either London or Calcutta or both can pay for research dice, and a 6 benefits the entire United Kingdom.
Ok, thanks for the quick answer.
I’m in a game of global right now, and a question as to liberating Paris has come up that I’m not sure of the answer to. I am the axis, and control Paris. My opponent, the allies, controls Normandy as UK, and Southern France as USA. He is utilizing the UK factory in Normandy, and has built a major USA factory in S. France.
I’m about to get my 14th city this turn, in which case he will crush Paris. However, he’s refrained from doing so right now in order to utilize the American factory on mainland Europe. His question for me is, if he liberates Paris, do the factories revert control to France IMMEDIATELY or will he still get to place 10 units for his turn?
I believe that it would revert control immediately, but in the rulebook I can’t find a specific statement that this is the case, and he believes that he should still be able to place his 10 units. Anyone know which one of us is correct?
@Captain:
I’m in a game of global right now, and a question as to liberating Paris has come up that I’m not sure of the answer to. I am the axis, and control Paris. My opponent, the allies, controls Normandy as UK, and Southern France as USA. He is utilizing the UK factory in Normandy, and has built a major USA factory in S. France.
I’m about to get my 14th city this turn, in which case he will crush Paris. However, he’s refrained from doing so right now in order to utilize the American factory on mainland Europe. His question for me is, if he liberates Paris, do the factories revert control to France IMMEDIATELY or will he still get to place 10 units for his turn?
I believe that it would revert control immediately, but in the rulebook I can’t find a specific statement that this is the case, and he believes that he should still be able to place his 10 units. Anyone know which one of us is correct?
I believe it reverts control immediately(since you can’t collect income from French territories if US liberates Paris).
