@calvinhobbesliker:
@Make_It_Round:
According to Larry, the US can be at war with Japan without being at war with Germany as well, and vice versa.
So Japan could still do a J1 attack while Germany leaves the US alone?
This is unlikely. I would imagine the same alliance triggers are in place from Pac40 as they have historic precedence. If Japan attacks the UK first turn, the US is triggered to declare war against Japan and can probably declare on Germany as well. The tripartite pact meant when the US declared war on Japan then Germany and Italy were obligated to declare war on the US and that brought the US into the war in Europe. I would imagine that this is simplified such that if the US is allowed to declare war due to an unprovoked japanese attack then they will be allowed to declare war against any and all Axis powers.
However, if Japan does NOT do a J1 and is instead attacked first by the UK, then Japan can declare war on the UK without bringing the US in, and because the US cannot declare war on Japan (the UK started it) it should follow that they cannot declare war on Germany either. So yes, it should be possible to keep the US out of the war for a few turns, but only if the UK jumps the gun and the J1 attack is never used.
And probably the only way to get Japan completely out of the picture is if the UK attacks Japan, and then Germany attacks a US ship, MAYBE Japan and the US could opt not to go to war until turn 4 (or Japan attacks the US).
I suppose it’s possible that Germany and italy don’t have to declare war against the US if Japan attacks first but the axis would probably never want the US able to focus only on one theater of war, so either you keep the US completely out of it until turn 4 by both Japan and Germany ignoring her completely, or you get her in on both sides (japan attacks first turn, which I believe should and will trigger total war).