@the-general-0 Trust me, you’re going to want to go forward rather than backward. The 2nd edition rules and setup for Europe can be found on the downloads page. There were no changes to the Europe map in the 2nd edtion.
Rules Q&A
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Is Korea adjacent to SZ5?
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Cal Moore, its on page 2 in the Rulebook. You still haven’t got your copies yet ? Slow mailservice in Germany ?
I wasn’t sure it was the correct spelling figuring it was another typo.
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@Imperious:
Who was the guy who typed out the rules? Is he still employed? Were the rules typed out on a computer with spell checker?
ooh, ooh, aah, aah… :wink: (scratch armpit)
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Sir I’ll have you know that primates make excellent typists, haven’t you seen the Simpsons? :lol:
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If after war has started and no one has claimed
BorneoSumatra, may the Brits land airplanes there?Yes, but it will not give them control of it. Taking control requires land units.
Interesting. Can they land planes on dutch-“controlled” terits before war has been declared?
No.
Can tanks or mech infantry move one space before loading onto a transport? Seems like in AA50 they could not, but I can’t seem to put my finger on it in this rule book.
I’d say it’s pretty safe to go with no if it’s not in the rulebook.
It is in the rulebook, on page 31, and the answer is no.
Unlike the UK or ANZAC, the US has no “special permission” to take over Dutch territories. It can no more do so than it could invade Borneo if India was held by Japan.
Are you saying that if USA conquers Sumatra from Japan it gets liberated to the Dutch, and nobody controls it? or does USA control it in this case.
USA.
Also, I assume USA can occupy a Dutch terit (controlled by UK or ANZAC) if it is at war?
Yes.
Does anyone have a solid answer for this? is IPC handed over when a capital is captured, and what are the capitals?
The rulebook has an answer, on page 18.
Is Korea adjacent to SZ5?
Yes.
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@Imperious:
Who was the guy who typed out the rules? Is he still employed? Were the rules typed out on a computer with spell checker?
Why didn’t these questions get answered?
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@Brain:
@Imperious:
Who was the guy who typed out the rules? Is he still employed? Were the rules typed out on a computer with spell checker?
Why didn’t these questions get answered?
Because they don’t add any value to this topic, and should better be posted in IL’s own “complain to WOTC” topic.
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If after war has started and no one has claimed
BorneoSumatra, may the Brits land airplanes there?Yes, but it will not give them control of it. Taking control requires land units.
So, after war has started,
the Brits can land airplanes on Dutch territories
if they are Dutch controlled.
Following that,
I suppose the Brits can land airplanes on Dutch territories
on the same turn they get control of them with land troops, right?My question is:
do the same rules apply also to Japan and FIC?
I mean:
may Japan land airplanes on FIC
on the same turn it get control of them with land troops?Questions like these can be answered by applying a simple principle. If the situation isn’t specifically dealt with in the rules, treat the Dutch and French territories in exactly the same way as Allied territories whose capital is held by the enemy.
According to what’s written here,
I suppose the answer to my question is yes… isn’t it? -
@Jake:
I suppose the Brits can land airplanes on Dutch territories
on the same turn they get control of them with land troops, right?Yes, as the territory was controlled by a friendly power at the beginning of its turn.
@Jake:
do the same rules apply also to Japan and FIC?
I mean:
may Japan land airplanes on FIC
on the same turn it get control of them with land troops?No. In Japan’s case, it is invading an Allied territory, so the territory was not controlled by a friendly power at the beginning of its turn.
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@Jake:
do the same rules apply also to Japan and FIC?
I mean:
may Japan land airplanes on FIC
on the same turn it get control of them with land troops?No. In Japan’s case, it is invading an Allied territory, so the territory was not controlled by a friendly power at the beginning of its turn.
FIC, like Syria, Morocco, Algeria and many more
were part of the Vichy France
(and fought against Allies)
and Vichy France was allied with Axis.
Anyway, if your answer is the rule for the game,
thanks for clarification.
:-) -
When this game (Pacific) opens I guess it is assumed that Paris is still in French control, or at least in the negotiation phase. Vichy at this point has not yet been established. I know that it all happens at about the same time. The fact that Japan can just walk in and take FIC with out a fight reflects the situation at the time I think. As for the other French colonies that will be in the Euro side, you will know exactly when Paris falls. I hope some of those colonies stay free french, but I hope others become pro-axis neutrals. Some of the French colonies might even start off as pro-axis neuts to make the political situation easier. This would reflect the Vichy forces, and the fact that the allies had to fight their way into Vichy tt. It seems like there will be more political rules for AA40E, regarding France/US. There are also pro-axis/pro-ally neutral rules to deal with that we don’t know much about. Pacific only deals with Mongolia that isn’t leaning either way (for game purpose anyway). Attacking these neutrals may have consequences.
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Is SZ1 adjacent to SZ2?
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@Jake:
Is SZ1 adjacent to SZ2?
Yes it is indeed. Next question would be; are Manchuria adjacent to seazone 6 ?
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From the rules : Any sea zone that contains only enemy sub. does not stop the movement of a sea unit. … . There is an exception … A submarine can attack any transport that moves into or through its sea zone unaccompanied by surface warship (note : submarines are NOT surface warship) … Each submarine fire once (att. 2) at the transports … any undestroyed transports can continue their planned movement.
Note : sea unit ending their combat movement in a zone containing only enemy sub may choose to attack or not.
Can a sub fire on lone transport if the 2 powers are not at war? if it can, is it a declaration of war? If so, would this still be true of a USA sub and Jap transport? Although the USA cannot attack until it is at war, it seems in this situation it is more of a defensive “attack” than an offensive one.
If a power makes a combat move against a power with which is not yet at war, a state of war between those powers (and possibly others) will immediately result. All territories and sea zones containing units belonging to the newly hostile power or powers instantly become hostile, and the normal restrictions of moving into or through hostile spaces apply.
I am guessing these “state of war” rules are not only immediate, but retroactive within the current combat move phase. Meaning Japan, not yet at war with USA, cannot combat move from SZ5 to attack US ships in SZ3 if there are US ships in SZ4. It would also mean that lone Japan transports making a combat move through a sz with US subs are still subject to fire from the subs even if subs can only fire upon passing transports with which they are at war (see above question). Am I wrong?
Important exception – During the combat movement phase that results in a state of war, transports already in sea zones that have just become hostile may be loaded in those sea zones (but not in other hostile sea zones). This may occur only during the combat movement phase which results in a state of war. Once that initial combat movement phase is over, normal transport loading restrictions apply.
normally, sea units that find themselves in a hostile SZ at the beginning of their combat move (I think in older games this would only happen when the enemy units were just purchased) are forced to make a combat move out of the SZ or conduct combat, correct?
Does this rule apply also when this situation occurs by new declarations of war?
Does the rule apply to transports, who can be ignored by enemy ships?
also, transports are normally only allowed to load in a combat move if it intends to unload in the same combat move, correct?
so, may the transport which finds itself in a newly hostile sea zone load units in its combat move, to move out of the hostile seazone with unloading the units?
Powers that begin the game neutral, such as the United States and the United Kingdom, are initially not considered part of the Allies nor the Axis.
It seems to me that this should be reworded, at it confuses other rules, such as this one:
@Krieghund:This wartime economy takes effect during the first U.S. turn that follows an unprovoked Japanese attack on any Allied-controlled ship or territory (not including China) or disruption of an Allied convoy, or on the U.S.’s third turn, whichever comes first.
Thanks to Krieg and Co for all your work! you really put in a lot of effort to make this a great game and it pays off for us! Thanks!
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Can a sub fire on lone transport if the 2 powers are not at war? if it can, is it a declaration of war? If so, would this still be true of a USA sub and Jap transport? Although the USA cannot attack until it is at war, it seems in this situation it is more of a defensive “attack” than an offensive one.
A power other than the US would be able to do this under any circumstances. The US would not be able to do it, however a combat movement by Japan that resulted in a state war with the US would free the US to respond in this manner.
I am guessing these “state of war” rules are not only immediate, but retroactive within the current combat move phase. Meaning Japan, not yet at war with USA, cannot combat move from SZ5 to attack US ships in SZ3 if there are US ships in SZ4. It would also mean that lone Japan transports making a combat move through a sz with US subs are still subject to fire from the subs even if subs can only fire upon passing transports with which they are at war (see above question). Am I wrong?
You’re not wrong.
normally, sea units that find themselves in a hostile SZ at the beginning of their combat move (I think in older games this would only happen when the enemy units were just purchased) are forced to make a combat move out of the SZ or conduct combat, correct?
Yes.
Does this rule apply also when this situation occurs by new declarations of war?
Yes.
Does the rule apply to transports, who can be ignored by enemy ships?
Yes. Warships may ignore transports, but transports may not ignore warships.
also, transports are normally only allowed to load in a combat move if it intends to unload in the same combat move, correct?
Yes.
so, may the transport which finds itself in a newly hostile sea zone load units in its combat move, to move out of the hostile seazone with unloading the units?
I assume you mean with_out_ unloading the units. No.
It seems to me that this should be reworded, at it confuses other rules, such as this one:
Good point. I’ll see what I can do.
Thanks to Krieg and Co for all your work! you really put in a lot of effort to make this a great game and it pays off for us! Thanks!
You’re welcome!
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Krieg I have question in terms of naval base repair. When a naval base receives more then 3 damage it is inoperative. So if you repair your NB while you have ships stationed there with damage, do they become repaired simultaneously or does the Naval base have to be operative at the beginning of the turn to repair ships?
Also in terms of airbases, can you strategic bomb an island airbase at the strategic bombing stage, hence disable the airbase, then conduct combat in the adjacent seaszone preventing fighters to scramble?
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@RogertheShrubber:
Also in terms of airbases, can you strategic bomb an island airbase at the strategic bombing stage, hence disable the airbase, then conduct combat in the adjacent seaszone preventing fighters to scramble?
Kamikaze and Scrambling units are commited before the SBR phase. So the scrambling planes are already in the air when the SBR takes place.
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@RogertheShrubber:
When a naval base receives more then 3 damage it is inoperative. So if you repair your NB while you have ships stationed there with damage, do they become repaired simultaneously or does the Naval base have to be operative at the beginning of the turn to repair ships?
Repairs take effect immediately, so the ships are also repaired.
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Thank you guys :-)
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I saw this question asked, but never saw an answer.
no destory in the following example
If a sub attacks a carrier with 2 planes. Do the planes still “launch” even thought they cannto attack. So if the carrier takes 1 hit, they can land on an adjencent zone (if possible)
or are they forced to stay on the carrier if only a sub attacks the zone? (
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