It is actually quite interesting that this version will start sometime in 1940 (the exact dates in the games are always left intentionally ambiguous in order to simplify and balance it but given that in AA40E the low countries will be occupied but France will not, we can assume it will be somewhere in the ballpark of May-June 1940).
At this time in 1940 Japan’s Imperial conquests were almost exactly equal to that which they had conquered as of December 6th 1941. The only real thing which changed between this time and Pearl Harbour would be the occupation of French Indochina. (Represented by the fact that in AA40P FIC (and China) are the only territories you can attack without declaring war on the allies.
However, once this was executed, Japan spent most of 1940 and 41 caught up in diplomatic relations (signing the non-aggression with Russia, the alliance with Italy and Germany, and trying to come to an agreement with the United States). In any case there was an enormous lull in hostilities starting in 1940, a “phony War” of the Pacific if you will. Therefore, the most historically accurate play for Japan would be essentially to take FIC and then wait the 2 other turns until The US is at war with them and Attack the whole lot (Hong Kong, Philippines, Pearl Harbour, Malaya, Guam, Burma etc.) in winter 41-42.
So my question is this: Given that this version allows Japan to conduct its “lighting war” earlier (while Germany will still be fighting France, and long before Barbarossa) does this represent an advantage for Japan? An advantage for the allies? Or a shift in focus to the Pacific theatre, because it will be of more consequence sooner?