First Turn Russian Income?

Ok so the US war production would ratchet up immediately (on Japans turn basically) after an event like attack on the FEC (+25) and could allow the US to declare war at the beginning of their turn if climbed to 80. Their spending income doesn’t increase (25 IPCS) for the event amount until the US collect income phase though (to spend next turn).

@WILD:

Ok so the US war production would ratchet up immediately (on Japans turn basically) after an event like attack on the FEC (+25) and could allow the US to declare war at the beginning of their turn if climbed to 80. Their spending income doesn’t increase (25 IPCS) for the event amount until the US collect income phase though (to spend next turn).

Correct.

I have a question regarding the U.S. war income as well. It states that the U.S. gains +10 if Germany/Japan/Italy attacks Russia. Does this mean a boost when one attacks and that’s it, or does it mean that its conceivable that the U.S. could gain +30 if all three decide to attack the U.S.S.R.?

Another question regarding East Poland.

It states that if Germany occupies East Poland that Russia can declare war. What if Germany attacks the territory but does not take it? For example, it decides to strafe and weaken it in the event the Commonwealth lands units in the territory.

@koba:

I have a question regarding the U.S. war income as well. It states that the U.S. gains +10 if Germany/Japan/Italy attacks Russia. Does this mean a boost when one attacks and that’s it, or does it mean that its conceivable that the U.S. could gain +30 if all three decide to attack the U.S.S.R.?

First time an Axis power attacks Russia only. So max +10 from this, not +30.

@koba:

Another question regarding East Poland.

It states that if Germany occupies East Poland that Russia can declare war. What if Germany attacks the territory but does not take it? For example, it decides to strafe and weaken it in the event the Commonwealth lands units in the territory.

Occupation is required for the Russian DOW. The idea here is that Russia wants to control East Poland for the income. If Germany helps this the Russians would probably appreciate it!

No doubt the Russians would like it.

My understanding is that Poland and the UK are allies, so is it possible that the UK could land planes into East Poland (or infantry) to shore it up and create a headache for the Germans and/or a buffer for the Russians? I understand thar Poland cannot attack unless Germany fails to take Warsaw but it would still be useful as a Commonwealth base on the mainland, especially if Greece and Yugoslavia are activated by the English at the same time.

Hey Koba, this is a strategy question to you because of your above post about UK activating Greece/Yugo UK1. I know it really doesn’t fit in this thread, but here goes.

In past games I have ran the UK Med fleet through the Suez to preserve it, which also means evacuating Egypt (which doesn’t feel right). The Germans destroy the entire Royal Atlantic Fleet G1 w/2nd impulse, and loosing the Med fleet to the Italians would add insult to injury. Evacuating the Med creates a very powerful Italy though, and again it doesn’t sit right w/me.

Now that the Greek fleet got a boost (coastal bb) I was thinking about activating them (and Yugo), and merging the UK Med fleet w/Greek fleet in sz 42. I believe because the Italians are neutral I can NCM (eventual sacrifice) my transport to sz40 (w/Italian ships) to activate both Greece and Yugo at the same time absorbing their ground and sea units (maybe even do it w/Free French if transport survives from sz 37?). I also just noticed that because the Italians are neutral the UK (or possibly the Free French from sz 37, if allowed to move through the Italian fleet) could place a dd in sz 41 to block the Italian sz39 fleet from participating in attacking sz 42 off Greece if they want to? (not sure if these powers can have surface ships in the same sz before a DOW by Italy, but I think so). I think this would create a problem for Italy deciding which to attack, land or sea (don’t think they could do both). The Italians could still hit the combined allied fleet, but w/o the sz39 ships it would weaken them or maybe even get mutual destruction (helps allies later?). If they don’t attack the ground forces those units could possibly combine next turn, which is also a thorn in the axis side (the RAF can fly into Yugo from London on UK2 for def if it looks good, then into N Africa?). Tying up the axis for a little while gives Russia some breathing room and maybe fewer units heading her way. Even if the Italians went for the ground units first, I think it leaves the UK in a better position, and they gain a couple dd’s to use for blockers if nothing else.

Anyway Koba, just wondered if you have activated Greece, and had an after action report for a more aggressive UK in the Balkan Peninsula.

Clarification for Variable :
Germany took Paris G1. This means that Italy joins the axis the beginning of It1 and would automatically be at war.

1. Italy doesn’t have the option of not going to war with Euro allies (UK & France) It1 if Paris falls right? If Paris falls, or Russia is attacked G1 the Italians join the axis It1 which means a DOW w/UK (and France) is assumed at the beginning of Italy’s turn.

2. Being that on UK1 Italy is still neutral, UK (and French) ships can pass through Italian occupied sz’s, and even share them if they choose to right. In other words a sz occupied w/neutral Italian ships doesn’t make it hostel, and may be passed through, or shared w/ships from the the allies.

2a) So in my above example the UK could slide a transport into sz40 w/the Italian navy to activate Greece and Yugo at the same time.

2b) On UK1, the English (or Free French) could NCM a dd to sz 41 w/neutral Italian ships, and on the Italians first turn they must join the axis by rule (Paris fell) and because they are at war now (w/UK & France), the allied dd in sz 41 would block the Italian fleet in sz39 from attacking the allies ships in sz42 right.

@koba:

No doubt the Russians would like it.

My understanding is that Poland and the UK are allies, so is it possible that the UK could land planes into East Poland (or infantry) to shore it up and create a headache for the Germans and/or a buffer for the Russians? I understand thar Poland cannot attack unless Germany fails to take Warsaw but it would still be useful as a Commonwealth base on the mainland, especially if Greece and Yugoslavia are activated by the English at the same time.

Yes, UK units may move into East Poland. Remember though, Russia is allowed to attack Poland from the beginning as well. So, we are assuming that Germany and Russia have both ignored East Poland. If Russia captures East Poland before UK1, UK units are not permitted since Russia would still be considered a neutral country (unless something else has caused them to be at war).

@WILD:

Clarification for Variable :
Germany took Paris G1. This means that Italy joins the axis the beginning of It1 and would automatically be at war.

1. Italy doesn’t have the option of not going to war with Euro allies (UK & France) It1 if Paris falls right? If Paris falls, or Russia is attacked G1 the Italians join the axis It1 which means a DOW w/UK (and France) is assumed at the beginning of Italy’s turn.

2. Being that on UK1 Italy is still neutral, UK (and French) ships can pass through Italian occupied sz’s, and even share them if they choose to right. In other words a sz occupied w/neutral Italian ships doesn’t make it hostel, and may be passed through, or shared w/ships from the the allies.

2a) So in my above example the UK could slide a transport into sz40 w/the Italian navy to activate Greece and Yugo at the same time.

2b) On UK1, the English (or Free French) could NCM a dd to sz 41 w/neutral Italian ships, and on the Italians first turn they must join the axis by rule (Paris fell) and because they are at war now (w/UK & France), the allied dd in sz 41 would block the Italian fleet in sz39 from attacking the allies ships in sz42 right.

This all seems correct to me. Nice strat!