Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)


  • @Gamerman01:

    OK kcdzim, so what we need is for you to donate $50 to the site (or you can donate the bronze amount first and see if that works) and if you then get the search function, we will know for sure.

    And yes, you should do it because you’re a rules deputy and that function would help you greatly.  :-)

    I would consider that once the missus is done with her PhD program and a member of the working week.  Until then I rely on memory, rule book or the google search.


  • Whoa - is she going to be more educated than you, then?

    And can you retire once she starts working?  You know, to pursue your A&A dreams and goals?


  • @Krieghund:

    Milton Bradley didn’t “give up on” A&A.  Milton Bradley is owned by Hasbro.  When Hasbro also bought Avalon Hill, it transferred A&A over to that company, seeing it as a better fit.  Later, Hasbro bought Wizards of the Coast and put Avalon Hill under it.

    I thought Milton Bradley decided to discontinue it and Avalon Hill picked it up before they were bought by Hasbro. I’m just glad somebody decided to keep producing the game and letting it evolve.


  • Is blitzing through unfriendly neutrals with no standing army units allowed?

    i.e. Italian tank blitzes from Iraq through NW Persia into Persia


  • @mgonzo777:

    Is blitzing through unfriendly neutrals with no standing army units allowed?

    i.e. Italian tank blitzes from Iraq through NW Persia into Persia

    Yes


  • I have a question about mongolia, i think i’ve been playing ‘wrong’ this whole time.

    I played about 8 global games so far, and in every game, the mongolian infantry was automatically turned into russian units at beginning of turn 4, even without japanese attack (i don’t know why, someone taught me the game this way i guess). Yesterday i played a G42 game, and before the match i asked the status of mongolia on LH forums, since the G42 game supposedly ‘starts at turn 4’, and i was surprised to find out, by reading the rulebook, that mongolia never automatically activates itself at turn 4, they will only turn russian “If Japan attacks a Russian controlled territory bordering Mongolia”.

    So russia can declare war on japan at turn 4, but that doesn’t change mongolia neutrality, and if russia happens to attack manchuria or korea, mongolia will stay neutral forever. Is this right?

    Man, talk about reading comprehension :D


  • The turn 4 requirement only applies to declaring war on Germany and Italy, not Japan.
    Russia can declare war on Japan on R1.

    You should read my Mongolia guide, here:
    http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=30776.new#new

    and then if you still have questions, feel free to ask here on the FAQ thread


  • @mgonzo777:

    Is blitzing through unfriendly neutrals with no standing army units allowed?

    i.e. Italian tank blitzes from Iraq through NW Persia into Persia

    Actually, Mgonzo, I recommend you read the Mongolia/neutrals “guide” that I created, also.  Use the link in the above post
    That guide addresses the blitzing unfriendly neutrals question and much more.


  • I think it makes sense that you should be able to blitz through unfriendly and true neutrals on a combat move. It’s an attack, just as with hostile territories. I just don’t see any evidence of this either way in the rulebook. Do you have a reference for this?

    Look at these two rules out of the AAG40.2 rulebook:
    Tanks, Mechanized Infantry, and Blitzing

    A tank can “blitz” by moving through an unoccupied hostile territory as the first part of a move that can end in a
    friendly or hostile territory.

    Territories

    All territories exist in one of three conditions:

    Friendly: Controlled by you or a friendly power.
    Hostile: Controlled by a power with which you are at war.
    Neutral: Not controlled by any power, or controlled by a power on the other side with which you are not yet at war

    My blitzing question is two part:

    1. Where on this spectrum do unfriendly and friendly neutrals fall? You can’t blitz through friendly neutrals. That is clearly stated. My understanding was that until an enemy power that was at war activated an unfriendly neutral by moving land units into it, the territory was neutral because it was not controlled by any power. Are unfriendly neutrals to be considered hostile territories before activation by an enemy power at war? Or are they neutral until the side they are sympathetic to declare war?

    2. Where’s the clarification for blitzing in regards to neutral territories?


  • Page 11 of the rulebook

    Unfriendly neutrals:
    “When a neutral territory is invaded, it’s no longer considered neutral and immediately becomes part of the alliance opposing the power that attacked it”

    Strict neutrals:
    “Strict neutrals are treated exactly the same way as unfriendly neutrals” (except for the way they all turn against you if you attack one)

    So unfriendly and strict neutrals become hostile immediately upon attacking them.  This is why you can blitz them with tanks.

  • '17

    Scenario:
    Germany captures London on G3 and ends that turn with loaded carriers in SZ110.
    Americans attack the German fleet in SZ110 damaging the German carriers on US3, forcing German planes to land in friendly territory and choose to land on London.
    The British attack the surviving fleet in SZ110 on UK3.

    Can Germany scramble from the London airbase on UK3?

    I ask because the rules say:
    “If you capture an air base or naval base, you can’t use the added flight or sea movement or receive repairs until your next turn”
    It doesn’t say scrambling, but I could see someone interpreting “added flight movement” that way.


  • @wheatbeer:

    Can Germany scramble from the London airbase on UK3?

    I ask because the rules say:
    “If you capture an air base or naval base, you can’t use the added flight or sea movement or receive repairs until your next turn”
    It doesn’t say scrambling, but I could see someone interpreting “added flight movement” that way.

    Yes, Germany can scramble from the London airbase on UK3.

    Added flight or sea movement is surely referring to adding a movement point to aircraft or naval units starting their turn at the base, and not referring to scrambling in any way.

    There is nothing in the scrambling rules that says “unless the air base has not yet been controlled for a full round”.  If you had to wait until the conqueror’s next turn to scramble, it would say so in the rule book.

  • '17

    Thanks  :-)

    Good thing too, 12 of my transports are riding on it  :lol:


  • hello, were going to play a global game and i was wondering, does the us start with its major complexes, or do they start with minor complexes and once the US is at war they get an  upgrade to major. Its been a long while since i set my teeth in a global game looking forward to it :p thanks


  • In 2nd edition, USA starts with minor complexes which get upgraded immediately when USA is at war


  • thanks another question comes to mind in the revised edition france has a fighter in Uk can it scramble in defense when Germany attacks the royal navy or is it limited to the seazone containing the  French cruiser


  • Any allied plane can be scrambled to defend any allied ships or neighboring territories being amphibiously assaulted from a sea zone that is adjacent to the air base.

    A German fighter in South Italy can be scrambled to Zone 97 to defend against a UK assault on Albania.

  • Official Q&A

    @Gamerman01:

    Any allied plane can be scrambled to defend any allied ships or neighboring territories being amphibiously assaulted from a sea zone that is adjacent to the air base.

    … as long as the owning power is at war.

  • '12

    This has probably been asked, but can someone answer this for me?  i just posted a quote from my current game below for sake of time:

    quote:

    to be clear, all you have to do is hold 8 VC’s in europe or 6 VC’s in the pacific for a full turn AND hold one of the axis capitals at the end of that round.

    so THEORETICALLY, you could take the 6th pacific VC at the beginning of Japan’s turn and EVEN IF at the beginning of that turn, the allies HELD Berlin, Rome, and Tokyo, as long as you held (the same?) 6 VC’s at the end of Japan’s next turn AND at least one of Berlin, Rome, or Tokyo, you would have the victory.

    The only thing that is unclear to me is whether the VC’s held must be the SAME VC’s or if the only requirement is that it be any combination of the 6 or 8.  In other words, would it be a victory if Japan held Tokyo, Manilla, Calcutta, Hong Kong, Hawaii, and Beijing at after J10, and then at the end of J11 Japan had lost Hawaii but had taken Sydney.  Would this qualify?  I don’t know, I will ask in the FAQ.

    Cheers


  • Any combination, does not have to be the same.

    But in your example when Japan lost Hawaii between J10 and J11, they lost the chance of victory by J11.  If they took Sydney J11 for the 6th city, the clock starts again.  They must maintain 6 cities for a round of play.

    Here’s a wacky example to illustrate this clearly.

    Say Japan has Tokyo, Manilla, Calcutta, Hong Kong, Hawaii, and Beijing at J10.
    US/UK takes Calcutta back UK 10.
    Axis only has 5 cities now, so victory clock stops.
    Italy takes Calcutta back and also takes Sydney.  Axis has 7 cities, and the clock starts again as of I10.
    ANZ liberates Manilla.  Axis are down to 6 cities, so clock is still going - Axis will win as long as they keep ANY 6 Pacific VC’s through I11 now.
    Japan takes WUS on J11.  Axis are at 7 cities.
    USA liberates Hawaii.  Axis are at 6 cities.
    Game goes to I11 without VC changing hands.
    Axis wins because they control at least 1 Axis capital in the world, and have maintained 6 or more VC’s in the Pacific constantly without interruption for an entire round of play, from I10 to I11.

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