@Janus1:
How can you be innocent if you buy the stuff that slaves have produced?
See now, thats just absurd.
First of all, I have never bought anything a slave produced
We seem to differ in the defintion of slaves. I seem to have a broader definition. By that, for example, Hasbro (employing inhumanely cheap workforce) produces by slaves (IMO). Thus, if you own a game of A&A which was produced after -say- 1991, then IMO you own a slave produced good. There is much more we could look at. You mentioned Nike, thus you don’t own Nikes then? Can you be sure that nothing you own is “clean” and not produced in sweatshops (which for me equivalents slavery)?
Second of all, like you said, slave made products were cheaper, not only because of that, but also because they were domestic goods, and did not have tariffs (this is within the US of course). are you going to make poor people buy more expensive goods?
Slave made products are still cheaper, but not at all for domestic use. Tariffs are more or less non-existant, except for things that non-western countries could produce and export to us (that is: food).
And yes: i would like to make poor people buy more expensive goods, if and only that means that the production costs are more than 30% of the sale price and the money goes to the producing workers to allow them a humane living.
If your dad accumulates debts, the banks will make sure that they get the money upon his death of his descendants
… The main difference being, that its not the same institution collecting from different debtors, its a different one. Its not like the scenario you said, where the dad died, but the bank is still there, its the dad died, and the bank died, and someone who used to work at the bank is trying to collect the money.
The only problem with that: banks don’t die. They may be bought, merged or whatever, but the debt account will live forever! Try it, your grandkids will love you for that…
If you profit from slave labor, you should pay for it. No matter wether you are on the producer or consumer side.
Ah, does that include the African tribes that “worked” for slave traders by providing them with slaves in exchange for liquor, and trinkets, and such? Does that mean they should pay reparations as well? or does it not apply to the slave trade?
They should pay. Relatively to how much they profited, and if you compare that to how much we profited, it will be neglectable. A trinket against a grown mans workpower….
so many things have happened between slavery and today,
… like what?
Its called a complete sentence Falk, why dont you read the full sentence before replying to a part of it, as the second part contains my point, the part you responded to applies to it.
I will repeat the sentence of you:
“Aside from not having been alive to affect the situation in any way, so many things have happened between slavery and today, that even if someones ancestors made wealth from slavery, that money may not have any affect today”
Nothing explains the difference between “between slavery and today”. I see your point (and went on to that in the following notion of my previous posting). My question still stands:
What happened between then and now? If i accepted that there was a “then and now”, i would accept that there is no slavery in the world anymore.
How would you call working in the sweatshops? I call it slavery, because that term fits best.
This again is commonplace, everywhere in the third world.
So, there is de-facto slavery. We don’t see it, we profit from it. We as consumers and especially the producers should pay for it.
But, breaking human rights seems to be not a crime as long as there is profit adn “shareholder value” behind it.
This is unrelated to making people pay reparations for slavery, it has no relevance.
WHAT ???
Existing slavery is unrelated to the point wether we should pay reparations for slavery?
Please, explain that. I can not follow you at all here.
Notice you said third world, as in, thats where the producers are, since we agree they should pay, go after them. I disagree with you that consumers should pay, but thats the foundation of this argument. you also use the word profit. If the term consumer is used, this applies also to people who buy, say, Nikes which are made in sweatshops, then you are saying that they profit from this, which is not true, they save money perhaps, something entirely different (but with the price of nikes, they may not actually be transferring these savings onto the consumers.)
this leaves me speechless.
Janus, do you mind reading? When did you do your economics course?
I think i could give you the titles of a handful of good books, or explain seperately, when i have more time.
Just think of that: Who produces, who is the one that the sweatshops work for? Third world people? First world corporations? Second: “to save money” is “to profit”. But agreed, the consumer usually profits less than the coorporation.
First, the term blood money no longer refers to murder etc. only.
……? is that it? thats all you have to say on that? what a good argument, simply saying what i said is no longer true, youve convinced me.
Just as convincing as your line: “and its not really blood money, because generally that applies to money for a murder, or assasination”
What a convincing argument, simply saying what is true. ;)
we as the western societies profited of slaves, some cooperations and individuals still profit from it.
Name some. give me some examples of these, and also, are we talking about the slavery that was conducted up till the 13th amendment? Or the “slavery” that is being conducted today, in which case, that is irrelevant
Slavery today is not irrelevant. And i could give you a bucketful of examples for modern slavery. For the western societies that profited from slaves, it is pretty easy: all.
You probably agree that the US economy has profited from slaves. Thus the countries that could import these wares have profited (“saved money”), these probably were mainly the English and the French.
Everyone who had islands in the Carribean with slave labor (on sugar etc.) profited, everyone who controlled countries which sold slaves profited (as the slave ships otherwise would not have come, and these ships needed fresh food and stuff for the long trip). Thus the Dutch as great trading nation have profited. The Spanish and Portugese have profited in their colonies. The Germans and all other nations have profited from the cheap riches that were shipped to Europe, that they otherwise could not have afforded.
Short: The whole western society has profited from that old-time slavery and slave-trade.
Sure, people could be poor today.
Dont tell me you are disputing the fact that people are poor? please dont tell me that
Let me quote you once more:
“The people could be poor today,…”
If you cannot relate my line to this, your line, of your previous posting, then i must doubt that you understand anything i write otherwise.
But how to become wealthy another way, with explicitly not profiting from the stoeln wealth of your society?
this is logic along the same lines as saying “how to drink without drinking the same water as dinosaurs did?” thats ridiculous. and its my society now? you can take it, and criticize it all you want, but dont call it mine.
Seems like you ignored the “explicitly” i put in there.
The “your” in front of society was a mistake of me. Replace it with his/her/its/ones if you please. Still, you as citizen of the US are member of a societey (which i called the western society) which massively profited from slavery. I am a member of that society also, everyone here is.
Because it was not an individual doing something to another individual.
By that logic, individuals should not have to repay individuals, because it was not an individual doing something to another individual, another difference in your dad’s debts to the bank scenario
You now seem to misunderstand on purpose i fear, and quote me out-of-context even worse than i did in my former posting(which you accused me severely of).
Do not accuse me of quoting out of context again, when
(a) i refer to the point you made in the following paragraph and address a minor point that you also made
(b) you quote one line out of a paragraph (which i think is saying something completely different).
If you think you have not understood what i mean, i am willing to explain in detail: The point was that the society profited, and although single persons might have lost their riches since then, the profit has by no means made its way back to whereever the salves came from. Thus, the profit still is “with us”, though probably not traceable to a single person.
That is a difference to your (IMO flawed) example and comparison to face-to-face crimes. Slaves had no faces, the ones who profited (and the ones who received the interest) have no faces.
No western society has clean hands, as the economies of us have been interweaved for quite some time.
No society on earth has clean hands. Every economy is interweaved, its a global economy. Western economies have effects on Eastern economies, and vice versa. Eastern economies also have their own evils to worry about
Now nowadays is acceptable and not irrelvant? You talk of “now”, when i obviously talk of the past (Merkantilism!) ? I used past the words “colonies”, mostly past tense for the verbs, and you did not notice that i was not talking of today?
Janus, would you mind not to attack me such bluntly and unrefined next time?
[edited several times to reduce the sharpness and aggressiveness]