Krieghung, thanks for the quick response. That poor Russian battleship in SZ12 has to thread the needle through SZ11 and SZ10 even if there are no ships there and I guess once the UK Navy is gone in SZ29, you just need to start ground pounding your way through Ottoman to get into the fight.
Axis and Allies 1914 FAQ/Question and Answer Thread
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Thanks for the answers Krieg- I imagine if Revolution is triggered, there aren’t many Russian controlled neutrals anymore- Why would we pick Russia for Holland when it can be France or England collecting that money?
Romania may be the only non original territory that becomes off limits (due to proximity to Russia and likelihood of Russia controlling it) when Revolution occurs.
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The last point is why I would think about moving the revolution to the end of a CP player’s turn. There are ways the Allies can manipulate the rule to gain an advantageous revolution, especially since Krieghund has confirmed that Moscow only counts towards CP victory conditions if it is controlled by the CPs.
You have to ask why the Germans would drive all that way into Russia to be robbed of their ultimate victory goal.
I might also consider that, if this does occur, Germany gets some free infantry to represent POWs released from Russian camps. Otherwise why go anywhere near Moscow, and why give the Allies free Force Fields in the West?
Another question; can the UK freely move forces into Belgian and Portuguese colonies before the respective capital is activated?
Say Germany captures Angola. The the UK liberates it - does France get the Angola income even if Portugal has not been activated?
Can I assume from the above answers then that the UK can transport an infantry into Albania and activate that country (along with its 4 units) before Italy has even had a turn? I haven’t played it that way; would have made a difference in Allied strategy.
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Which territory has force fields? As in, which one is likely?
I suppose if the CP’s are going to attack a neutral that could be given to Russia they should either thoroughly destroy the defenders and take the territory before they trigger revolution.
There are not too many neutrals that are ‘must attack’ by the CP, so maybe this won’t come up very often.
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You have to ask why the Germans would drive all that way into Russia to be robbed of their ultimate victory goal.
That depends on the Germans. There are ways for both sides to manipulate the conditions of the Russian revolution.
Another question; can the UK freely move forces into Belgian and Portuguese colonies before the respective capital is activated?
Yes.
Say Germany captures Angola. The the UK liberates it - does France get the Angola income even if Portugal has not been activated?
No, the United Kingdom does. Only territories originally controlled by a major power are liberated. See page 20.
Can I assume from the above answers then that the UK can transport an infantry into Albania and activate that country (along with its 4 units) before Italy has even had a turn?
Yes.
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_Say Germany captures Angola. The the UK liberates it - does France get the Angola income even if Portugal has not been activated?
No, the United Kingdom does. Only territories originally controlled by a major power are liberated. See page 20._
Does that include Belgium? Or, do we consider that when Belgium was attacked and the French mobilized units to defend it, that country was first (and therefore originally) controlled by France?
Or does “originally” in this sense specifically mean at the start of the game. -
Rulebook, page 15:
“Land units that begin the turn in contested territories can only be moved to territories that are controlled by your power, or to territories that are also contested and already contain units belonging to your power. If they are moved by transport, they may also remain at sea.”
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Austria-Hungary invaded Venice on turn 1, making it contested. On its turn, Italy pulls back to Tuscany, leaving 1 infantry unit in a still contested Venice. On Turn 2, can the Austro-Hungarian army leave some units in contested Venice and march the rest into Tuscany to be supported by an amphibious assault on Tuscany that does not require sea combat?
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Lorraine is contested and contains French and German troops. Picardy is contested and contains British, French, and German troops. On its turn could Britain move troops directly from Picardy to Lorraine?
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Romania is contested and contains Ottoman and Russian troops. Galicia is contested and contains German, Austro-Hungarian and Russian troops. Budapest is uncontested and contains Austro-Hungarian troops. Could Austria-Hungary move troops from Budapest into Romania and then move troops from Galicia to Romania on the same turn?
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I’m still a little confused by movement from contested tts into other contested tts:
(page 15)
Land units that begin the turn in contested tts can be moved… into tts that are also contested and already contain units that belong to your power.
Does this include those tts which have only become contested during the current movement turn?
Another situation I have is:
Venice is contested. Italy wishes to leave just one unit there and pull the rest back to Tuscany, which it controls.
If Austria on its turn amphibious assaults Tuscany from SZ 18, does this entitle Austria to move units from contested Venice through into Tuscany? Or in this case do we assume that because the assault has not taken place yet (even though there is no sea battle) Tuscany is not yet contested?
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- Austria-Hungary invaded Venice on turn 1, making it contested. On its turn, Italy pulls back to Tuscany, leaving 1 infantry unit in a still contested Venice. On Turn 2, can the Austro-Hungarian army leave some units in contested Venice and march the rest into Tuscany to be supported by an amphibious assault on Tuscany that does not require sea combat?
No. Tuscany was not contested at the beginning of Austria-Hungary’s turn.
- Lorraine is contested and contains French and German troops. Picardy is contested and contains British, French, and German troops. On its turn could Britain move troops directly from Picardy to Lorraine?
No. Lorraine did not contain British units at the beginning of Britain’s turn.
- Romania is contested and contains Ottoman and Russian troops. Galicia is contested and contains German, Austro-Hungarian and Russian troops. Budapest is uncontested and contains Austro-Hungarian troops. Could Austria-Hungary move troops from Budapest into Romania and then move troops from Galicia to Romania on the same turn?
No. Romania did not contain Austro-Hungarian units at the beginning of Austria-Hungary’s turn.
I’m still a little confused by movement from contested tts into other contested tts:
(page 15)
Land units that begin the turn in contested tts can be moved… into tts that are also contested and already contain units that belong to your power.
Does this include those tts which have only become contested during the current movement turn?
No.
Another situation I have is:
Venice is contested. Italy wishes to leave just one unit there and pull the rest back to Tuscany, which it controls.
If Austria on its turn amphibious assaults Tuscany from SZ 18, does this entitle Austria to move units from contested Venice through into Tuscany?
No. (Is there an echo in here?)
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We need to know if its safe for Italy to run away.
Thanks for your answers.
Still waiting on the American fleet questions above, if you can help.
Also, is it correct that if a tt with a SZ is enemy (i.e. not the original side) controlled the mines have no effect on either side?
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I think this will be a great game, but a couple things leave me wanting :?
The Russian Revolution rules defiantly leave you scratching your head (Flash was right, I didn’t see that one coming). An allied strat to have the Russians sell out to gain strategic CP territories, or even CP capitals will emerge (forcing the CP to abort the Revolution), and then we are in fantasy land. I will reserve judgement for now, but I can see this being a topic of major concern for some time, not used, or house ruled to death.
With the Turks in the game, I’m really disappointed that there is nothing to incorporate the straight. Both sides courted the Turks to lure them to their side for passage. When they chose the CP (or the CP chose them), the Russians and English really had a bulls-eye on it. Could of /Should of been written in as an optional rule (like in other AA games).
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Can allied units in russian territory launch attacks into CP controlled territory after a revolution.
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Yes, but the Russkis will just watch.
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So an allied army can prowl around in the off limits territories, or walk from India to Finland and attack Sweden?
What if the allies attack and liberate a Russian territory on their way out of Russia.
The allies can leave a chain of units in off limits Russia and march through territory they have units in up to the front.
Or am I misunderstanding.
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Beats me.
I’ll need to test the rule out before I can even pretend to understand it.
Krieghund is evidently quite happy with the possibility of Russian Force Fields, personally I can’t see them anywhere outside Russia being anything less than a game breaker.
The simplest way of dealing it is to state that when Russia removes units from outside Russia it also removes control markers.
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Kreighund,
Any chance that there will be an official change for the tank- making it a cost of $5 instead of $6??? I don’t wanna get ahead of myself but several here think (and those tested the game already think) that the tank is useless as it stands. No real purpose of buying it, might as well soak hits with the more powerful infantry or artillery. The tank as a unit already seems broken. Can you explain futher???
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Suppose France invades Spanish Morocco. Since this isn’t a capital territory, no units are mobilized here correct?
And what about Spain? Does Spain mobilize units in response to this event or would it remain neutral? -
Can fighters being transported as cargo participate in amphibious assaults? And if so, can they be hit by defending artillery in the coastal fire?
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While neutral, can American ships
Transport Allied units
Share a SZ with Allies
Share a SZ with CP ships
Be attacked separately by CP ships while sharing a SZ with other Allies
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The only thing is- why wouldn’t the Allies always have Russia take control of any neutral power that the CP’s attack, since in the event that revolution occurs, if said neutral territory is still russian controlled, the CPs cannot ever attack it?�
Let’s use Holland as an example again. The advantage of having Russia defend it is that if the Central Powers are pushed out and Russia ends up controlling it…
I think people are missing the fact that when you ‘activate’ a minor power, you don’t ‘own’ it or ‘control’ it…you simply use your units to represent the power’s army. Therefore, the only way Russia could ‘control’ Holland (as you pointed out) would be for the Central Powers to retake it, then have the Allies take it back, nominating Russia to control it.
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