Indeed. Actually you need the errata in case you own an older/outdated print of the second edition rulebook. But in that case you are fine with updating the rulebook itself.
Rules Q&A
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@Brain:
WOTC Customer Service sucks.
haha I have a cuz who used to work for WOTC and she was nice to me. guess you just have to be related.
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Not sure about 1942, but I do know that WOTC does have the rulebook for Anniversary online. It is however not on the downloads page and takes some looking around to find.
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Just read my rules book a couple times, didn’t see anything about Neutral Countries. Then I went through specifically looking for rules addressing Neutrals, still, nothing. Did I just miss these? Or what is the deal with the Mongorians?
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@Brain:
WOTC Customer Service sucks.
haha I have a cuz who used to work for WOTC and she was nice to me. guess you just have to be related.
I did notice that you said she used to work for WOTC.
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Just read my rules book a couple times, didn’t see anything about Neutral Countries. Then I went through specifically looking for rules addressing Neutrals, still, nothing. Did I just miss these? Or what is the deal with the Mongorians?
What are Mongorians? Some kind of gory mongrels?
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Just read my rules book a couple times, didn’t see anything about Neutral Countries. Then I went through specifically looking for rules addressing Neutrals, still, nothing. Did I just miss these? Or what is the deal with the Mongorians?
Try looking on page 8.
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so I would get 1 ‘free’ combat move so to speak, then after my first combat move against Uk/Az/US I would be considered at war for all further combat moves? So for example, if the US had a destroyer in SZ 25, and I had a japan fleet in SZ 6 from which I moved 1 submarine into SZ 26 and use it to attack a US fleet in SZ 26, my battleship and transport in SZ 6 would then NOT be able to move to SZ 26 unless the US destroyer was destroyed because I am now at war. However, if I were to move the transport first it would be able to bypass the destroyer and I would be free to clear SZ 26 with airpower and allow my transport to land troops. If this is unclear just say and I will reword it.
No. All combat movements are simultaneous. It doesn’t matter which order you may them in. At any rate, a transport making an amphibious assault is still a combat movement, so it would not be able to bypass the destroyer.
Do allied ships ‘block’ the movement of Japan boats before war is declared?
No. A sea zone is only hostile if it contains surface warships belonging to a power with which you are at war.
So and allied power can make a non-combat movement ending in a seazone containing surface warships belonging to an axis power (and vice versa) if war has not been declared between them?
Yes.
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@Brain:
Just read my rules book a couple times, didn’t see anything about Neutral Countries. Then I went through specifically looking for rules addressing Neutrals, still, nothing. Did I just miss these? Or what is the deal with the Mongorians?
What are Mongorians? Some kind of gory mongrels?
South Park episode, the town hires the local Chinese Restaurant owner to build them a Great Wall around their city to protect them from invading Mongolians. He pronounced it “Mongorians”.
And now to page 8 in my rule book to see what I can see, thanks Krieg.
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How about getting into a discussion of why the company doesn’t publish the rulebook after (like, over a year after) they release a game. They have all the rulebooks up to Guadalcanal on their downloads page, but still don’t have AA50 or AA42. Is there somewhere else I should be looking? Can I expect to be able to download a copy of the rulebook after release?
The rulebook and FAQ for AA50 is available on its product page on AH’s site. I’ve been trying to get them added to the general download and FAQ pages for months, with no results. Hopefully the AA42 rulebook will be made available soon. Maybe when the AAP40 FAQ is ready they’ll do it all at once.
You should always check Larry Harris’ site for the latest FAQ information, as it’s nearly always published there first.
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In the pre war turns, may opposing war ships surface or subs coexist in the same SZ without combat? :?
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If there is sea combat before an amphibious then all sea units must participate in the sea battle before the landing, OK got that.
But if there are air units, must all air units participate, in that pre-landing battle or can you hold back bombers/fighters for the landing combat phase if any??
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Have another Q:
Am I right that the territory’s IPC value no longer limits the output of an IC?
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Have another Q:
Am I right that the territory’s IPC value no longer limits the output of an IC?
That is correct, it’s dependent on the type of factory, major or minor.
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If Japan attacks on J1, how much does US start off with on US1? is it 17 or 57? I would assume they start off with 17 and at the end of US1 during the collect income phase they collect 57 (if they did not lose any tt).
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so I would get 1 ‘free’ combat move so to speak, then after my first combat move against Uk/Az/US I would be considered at war for all further combat moves? So for example, if the US had a destroyer in SZ 25, and I had a japan fleet in SZ 6 from which I moved 1 submarine into SZ 26 and use it to attack a US fleet in SZ 26, my battleship and transport in SZ 6 would then NOT be able to move to SZ 26 unless the US destroyer was destroyed because I am now at war. However, if I were to move the transport first it would be able to bypass the destroyer and I would be free to clear SZ 26 with airpower and allow my transport to land troops. If this is unclear just say and I will reword it.
No. All combat movements are simultaneous. It doesn’t matter which order you may them in. At any rate, a transport making an amphibious assault is still a combat movement, so it would not be able to bypass the destroyer.
Do allied ships ‘block’ the movement of Japan boats before war is declared?
No. A sea zone is only hostile if it contains surface warships belonging to a power with which you are at war.
So and allied power can make a non-combat movement ending in a seazone containing surface warships belonging to an axis power (and vice versa) if war has not been declared between them?
Yes.
so , in effect, you cannot make a combat move without having already declared war, is that right?
can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?
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How about getting into a discussion of why the company doesn’t publish the rulebook after (like, over a year after) they release a game. They have all the rulebooks up to Guadalcanal on their downloads page, but still don’t have AA50 or AA42. Is there somewhere else I should be looking? Can I expect to be able to download a copy of the rulebook after release?
The rulebook and FAQ for AA50 is available on its product page on AH’s site. I’ve been trying to get them added to the general download and FAQ pages for months, with no results. Hopefully the AA42 rulebook will be made available soon. Maybe when the AAP40 FAQ is ready they’ll do it all at once.
You should always check Larry Harris’ site for the latest FAQ information, as it’s nearly always published there first.
Thanks very much!
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can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?
Convoy attacks are not combat moves, or non combat moves. They are declared during the collect income phase of an opponent when you have ships in their convoy zone.
I believe that Japan could move their fleet into a seazone with a british convoy marker (and in fact a british fleet) while not at war. During the british turn, during their collect income phase, Japan decides whether they will interdict the convoy. At that point, a convoy attack is a declaration of war.
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Question:@Shakespeare:
In the pre war turns, may opposing war ships surface or subs coexist in the same SZ without combat? :?
Answer:@Krieghund:
Do allied ships ‘block’ the movement of Japan boats before war is declared?
No. A sea zone is only hostile if it contains surface warships belonging to a power with which you are at war.
So and allied power can make a non-combat movement ending in a seazone containing surface warships belonging to an axis power (and vice versa) if war has not been declared between them?
Yes.
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can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?
Convoy attacks are not combat moves, or non combat moves. They are declared during the collect income phase of an opponent when you have ships in their convoy zone.
I believe that Japan could move their fleet into a seazone with a british convoy marker (and in fact a british fleet) while not at war. During the british turn, during their collect income phase, Japan decides whether they will interdict the convoy. At that point, a convoy attack is a declaration of war.
That answers my question precisely, thank you. So I understand that the rules do state, then, that the decision of whether or not to inderdict is made by the aggressor during the “defender’s” turn.
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If Japan attacks on J1, how much does US start off with on US1? is it 17 or 57? I would assume they start off with 17 and at the end of US1 during the collect income phase they collect 57 (if they did not lose any tt).
The US would still start with only 17. If war is declared on the second turn, the US STILL wouldn’t have the bonus 40 available to spend until the buy phase of the 3rd turn. Think of it as the time it takes for the US to effectively mobilize itself after the sneak attack.
National objectives work the same way. You don’t collect extra money at the start of the game for any objectives you happen to be making at the start of the game. For example, in AA50, at setup the US doesn’t get extra dough because she controls philipines, central USA, blah de blah de blah. Objectives only kick in at the collect income phase at the end of a turn, not at beginning of game.
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