Axis and Allies 1914 FAQ/Question and Answer Thread

Krieg is there any chance the revolution rules will specify that russian units and control markers are removed from original CP territory?

That would make the transition to a post revolution game a lot smoother

To what extent does a fleet have to declare its intentions for a 2 space move?

I assume that a fleet sailing into enemy SZs can, if it hits mines in the first, decide not to continue to a 2nd even if it originally intended to.

But what if it intended to amphibiously assault after the 2nd move; is it still legal to call off the attack?

Example: Russian fleet sailing from Petrograd intending to AA Kiel but suffering from mines in SZ 11.

Are contested sea zones treated exactly as per contested land areas for movement purposes?

@Krieghund:

Note that control of a naval base is not the same as control of the territory that it’s in.  You control a naval base if you either control the territory it’s in or that territory is one of your original territories and it’s contested.

Just to get clarification on this, if you lose control of that territory, but later contest it again, do you regain control of that naval base?

Also, say you lose control of the territory, but one of your allies later contests it, so none of your units are present, do you regain control at that point, and if not who does control it?

I guess to summarize, does control default to the original owner regardless of how the territory became contested?

@Texas:

@Krieghund:

Note that control of a naval base is not the same as control of the territory that it’s in.  You control a naval base if you either control the territory it’s in or that territory is one of your original territories and it’s contested.

Just to get clarification on this, if you lose control of that territory, but later contest it again, do you regain control of that naval base?

YES

Also, say you lose control of the territory, but one of your allies later contests it, so none of your units are present, do you regain control at that point, and if not who does control it?

NOBODY CONTROLS THE TT, YOU CONTROL THE NAVAL BASE

I guess to summarize, does control default to the original owner regardless of how the territory became contested?

I BELIEVE THIS IS THE CASE

@oztea:

Krieg is there any chance the revolution rules will specify that russian units and control markers are removed from original CP territory?

There’s always a chance, but I wouldn’t count on it.

@Flashman:

To what extent does a fleet have to declare its intentions for a 2 space move?

I assume that a fleet sailing into enemy SZs can, if it hits mines in the first, decide not to continue to a 2nd even if it originally intended to.

But what if it intended to amphibiously assault after the 2nd move; is it still legal to call off the attack?

Example: Russian fleet sailing from Petrograd intending to AA Kiel but suffering from mines in SZ 11.

Mines are rolled for after ship movement is completed, so you can’t stop moving if you hit a mine in the first sea zone.  You can, however, call off an amphibious assault.

@Flashman:

Are contested sea zones treated exactly as per contested land areas for movement purposes?

There is no such thing as a contested sea zone.  Sea zones are either friendly or hostile, depending on the presence of enemy surface warships.

@Texas:

I guess to summarize, does control default to the original owner regardless of how the territory became contested?

Yes.

OK, wrong terminology; what I meant was can a fleet sharing SZ1 with an enemy fleet sail away and attack an enemy fleet in SZ2 ignoring the enemy in SZ1?

Yes.

@questioneer:

Kreighund,

Any chance that there will be an official change for the tank- making it a cost of $5 instead of $6???  I don’t wanna get ahead of myself but several here think (and those tested the game already think) that the tank is useless as it stands.  No real purpose of buying it, might as well soak hits with the more powerful infantry or artillery.  The tank as a unit already seems broken.  Can you explain futher???

Waiting for a reply on this- thanks. :-)

@questioneer:

@questioneer:

Kreighund,

Any chance that there will be an official change for the tank- making it a cost of $5 instead of $6???�  I don’t wanna get ahead of myself but several here think (and those tested the game already think) that the tank is useless as it stands.�  No real purpose of buying it, might as well soak hits with the more powerful infantry or artillery.�  The tank as a unit already seems broken.�  Can you explain futher???

Waiting for a reply on this- thanks. :-)

I think once you see it in action or run the numbers, you will change your mind on the tank.

Here is an example of its effect in combat compared to an equal cost of 2 infantry.  For simplicity, I won’t list the units accompanying these units and the numbers are the sum of all units attack/defense.

Offense 1
1 tank - attack 2
2 inf - attack 4

Defense 1
1 tank, 1 inf - defend 4
2 inf - defend 6

Offense 2
1 tank, 1 inf - attack 4
2 inf - attack 4

Defense 2
1 tank, 2 inf - defend 7
2 inf - defend 6

It just keeps adding after that.  The initial investment will weaken you, but the western front will not be one in one round of combat.  Also, say the above was taking place in Lorraine, the infantry saved by the tank are infantry that didn’t have to be purchased and marched 4 spots from Berlin.  The combat is a lot slower in this version, even more so with the large number of spaces between Berlin and Paris.

Sorry if this has been asked already. I have some questions about amphibs asssults, air support and the order.

A) In an amphib does the defenders first strike art shot (kill shot) happen before the dog fight, or after the dog fight?

Sorry if there is more in the rule book about this, I very well may have missed it. What I’ve read about def first strike art don’t mention air support (just says fire a kill shot at 3 or less). Plus and an attacking ftr offloading from a transport could be lost to def first strike art fire so there might not be a dog fight (from this thread?). I’m assuming the first strike art shot is done before the dog fight (and that’s what I used below), of course if the dog fight was done first, them wouldn’t it upgrade you def art for a kill shot @ 4 or less if you won the dog fight?  (I’m so confused).

So you would do

1. Navy battle (if applicable).

2. Bombardment (if applicable).

3. Off load attackers units from transport

4. Defenders first strike art shot @ 3 or less (kill shot) if def has art.

5. Remove attackers causalities from units transported by sea from #4 , and they don’t get to return fire (an attacking inf participating from adjacent land territory would suffice for “must have inf last man standing”)

6. Dog fight to the death (if both sides have ftrs) determine air superiority.

7. Fight remaining land battle as normal (upgrading art if one side gains air support)

If the above order is wrong please set me straight

B) In an amphib (sea battle was won by attacker, or nonexistent) if attacker has a ftr on a transport it does it participate in the dog fight as if it flew over right (subject to defending first strike art from above).

@questioneer:

@questioneer:

Kreighund,

Any chance that there will be an official change for the tank- making it a cost of $5 instead of $6???�  I don’t wanna get ahead of myself but several here think (and those tested the game already think) that the tank is useless as it stands.�  No real purpose of buying it, might as well soak hits with the more powerful infantry or artillery.�  The tank as a unit already seems broken.�  Can you explain futher???

Waiting for a reply on this- thanks. :-)

You are getting ahead of yourself.

@WILD:

Sorry if this has been asked already. I have some questions about amphibs asssults, air support and the order.

A) In an amphib does the defenders first strike art shot (kill shot) happen before the dog fight, or after the dog fight?

Sorry if there is more in the rule book about this, I very well may have missed it. What I’ve read about def first strike art don’t mention air support (just says fire a kill shot at 3 or less). Plus and an attacking ftr offloading from a transport could be lost to def first strike art fire so there might not be a dog fight (from this thread?). I’m amusing the first strike art shot is done before the dog fight (and that’s what I used below), of course if the dog fight was done first, them wouldn’t it upgrade you def art for a kill shot @ 4 or less?  (I’m so confused).

So you would do

1. Navy battle (if applicable).

2. Bombardment (if applicable).

3. Off load attackers units from transport

4. Defenders first strike art shot @ 3 or less (kill shot) if def has art.

5. Remove attackers causalities from units transported by sea from #4 , and they don’t get to return fire (an attacking inf participating from adjacent land territory would suffice for “must have inf last man standing”)

6. Dog fight to the death (if both sides have ftrs) determine air superiority.

7. Fight remaining land battle as normal (upgrading art if one side gains air support)

If the above order is wrong please set me straight

The pre-emptive artillery strike is simply inserted before the land battle for assaults only (not reinforcements).  It is not affected by air superiority.  Any and all offloading units are subject to being hit, and are removed immediately.  The land battle ensues normally, with the exception of possible battleship bombardment being included (assaults only).  See page 22 of the Rulebook.

The order of events is:

1. Sea battle
2. Offload units
3. Pre-emptive artillery strike
4. Land battle (including battleship bombardment, if any)

@WILD:

B) In an amphib (sea battle was won by attacker, or nonexistent) if attacker has a ftr on a transport it does it participate in the dog fight as if it flew over right (subject to defending first strike art from above).

Yes.  Remember, we’re talking about battles that last weeks, if not months.  Amphibious air units (like tanks) are being unloaded in crates from transports and brought ashore.  During this process, they can be hit by the pre-emptive artillery strike.  After they are ashore (assuming they make it), they are prepared for fighting and may participate in the land battle.

Does anybody know why it takes Larry Harris so long to post his report of the first US-turn?

It`s not that I expect big surprises but I think it would round off the official walk through turn 1…

@Chacmool:

Does anybody know why it takes Larry Harris so long to post his report of the first US-turn?

It`s not that I expect big surprises but I think it would round off the official walk through turn 1…

It probably wasn’t worth the time of “Spend 20 IPCs, move navy off the coast of England.”  =/

@Krieghund:

The pre-emptive artillery strike is simply inserted before the land battle for assaults only (not reinforcements).  It is not affected by air superiority.  Any and all offloading units are subject to being hit, and are removed immediately.  The land battle ensues normally, with the exception of possible battleship bombardment being included (assaults only).  See page 22 of the Rulebook.

The order of events is:

1. Sea battle
2. Offload units
3. Pre-emptive artillery strike
4. Land battle (including battleship bombardment, if any)

OK thanks Krieghund I got it, so if there is a battle (not just reinforcing via sea) any ftrs the attacker brought via transport could be killed on the beaches and not make it to the dog fight. This would  depend on what the attacker has brought in, and how many kill shots the def art get (at 3 or less).

The actual dog fight (ftrs duel to the death) would be in the beginning of land battle (your #4) to gain air superiority for that land battle. If you gain air support (def or attacker) then in the land battle all your art fire at 4 or less, and your surviving ftr(s) would also roll at 2 or less vs ground units (as normal).

Krieg, considering I will probably be getting the game tomorrow and am set to get a big game together on the coming weekend with a few friends is there any way you could condense some of the major issues into a mini-faq? Not a PDF or word file or anything, just as a post on here, or in this thread just so I have something to reference quickly if something comes up. My group can get a little picky at time with rules so I’d like to be able to point to something tangible.

Russian Revolution (if any clarification is needed)
Friendly Ports
US Movement
Production at naval bases
US can’t be nominated as a sponsor for a minor power

And any other major rules conundrums I may have missed.

-Thanks

@Flashman:

Can a fleet sharing SZ1 with an enemy fleet sail away and attack an enemy fleet in SZ2 ignoring the enemy in SZ1?

Krieghund said yes.

In normal circumstances I agree, but in my game it just didn’t seem right when a German battleship, sharing a “home port” with a French rival after a sea battle the attacking French called off, could just steam away and attack the British fleet sitting off London.

The main reason the French fleet attacked was to eliminate the threat to the UK transport fleet bridging units over the channel. Without the ability to retreat back to the UK SZ the French dreadnought was helpless to prevent this.

So I would suggest that:

As a trade-off for the protection of mines in home waters, a fleet in a home port can be blockaded. That is, it must clear its SZ of all enemy surface ships before it is able to move to another SZ.

A. For the Revolution, must one of the “other” territories (the one needed in addition to the (at least) 3 adjacent territories) be a territory NOT adjacent to Moscow? In other words, if the CP control 4 territories adjacent to moscow but somehow control no others, does the Revolution occur?

B. It’s not terribly likely, but it seems that if other Allies are in Russia, they can cut off CP forces from being able to leave after the revolution occurs by liberating territories that would be on the CP routes out.

C. Looking at page 15, Germany, for example, cannot move out of a contested territory into a CP ally’s controlled territory, correct? (sorry if echo)

This has probably already been suggested but I might as well post it.

Once the revolution occurs, All Russian units outside of originally Russian territories are removed. In such non-originally Russian.territories where there were Russian units:
1. If the territory is Russian controlled and another Ally has units present, one such ally may take control.
2. If the territory is Russian controlled and no other Ally has units present, control reverts to the original owner.
3. If the territory is contested and the only Allied units in the territory were Russian, one Central Power present assumes control of the territory.
4. If the territory is contested and contains Allied units other than Russians it remains contested.

No potential for force fields. Only 4 possible conditions to check, one time, for those territories. It really only changes things where the situation would have been silly anyways (Istanbul being un-retakeable for CP, etc.), and really removes the possibility of suicide Russian strats for Istanbul being useful.

I can agree with vonLettowVorbeck1914
For the sake of simplicity, and to prevent the nightmare scenario of an off limits Istanbul such a suggestion should be considered.

OR an alternative that the Central Powers can delay the Armistice, if they wish, until they can recapture critical territories.
However, just having the Russians remove all presences outside of their original territory is much better.

I’m beginning to suspect that the RR as written is a dead letter because:

1. Since it occurs on the Russian turn, the Allies will manipulate it to their advantage, particularly by ensuring it happens before the CPs can take Moscow, thus denying them the advantages of that including obtaining a victory objective.

2. In the light of 1. above, the CP will ensure that the circumstances in which revolution can occur never in fact so so, and that they take Moscow by a direct route instead, thus precluding any chance of Revolution.

I think they’d better think it out again.

@Texas:

@questioneer:

@questioneer:

Kreighund,

Any chance that there will be an official change for the tank- making it a cost of $5 instead of $6???�  I don’t wanna get ahead of myself but several here think (and those tested the game already think) that the tank is useless as it stands.�  No real purpose of buying it, might as well soak hits with the more powerful infantry or artillery.�  The tank as a unit already seems broken.�  Can you explain futher???

Waiting for a reply on this- thanks. :-)

I think once you see it in action or run the numbers, you will change your mind on the tank.

Here is an example of its effect in combat compared to an equal cost of 2 infantry.  For simplicity, I won’t list the units accompanying these units and the numbers are the sum of all units attack/defense.

Offense 1
1 tank - attack 2
2 inf - attack 4

Defense 1
1 tank, 1 inf - defend 4
2 inf - defend 6

Offense 2
1 tank, 1 inf - attack 4
2 inf - attack 4

Defense 2
1 tank, 2 inf - defend 7
2 inf - defend 6

It just keeps adding after that.  The initial investment will weaken you, but the western front will not be one in one round of combat.  Also, say the above was taking place in Lorraine, the infantry saved by the tank are infantry that didn’t have to be purchased and marched 4 spots from Berlin.  The combat is a lot slower in this version, even more so with the large number of spaces between Berlin and Paris.

You seem to be comparing apples to oranges here.  Ex.in Attack 2:

1tnk, 1inf= 9IPCs versus 2inf= 6IPC.

This should be 3inf= 9IPC at an attack of 6
vs.
1tnk, 1inf= 9IPCs at an attack of 4

plus the extra inf gives you an extra hit, that washes out the tank soaking a hit.  With infantry having a much better defense alone at a 3-1 advantage over the tank.

Also for 7IPCs I can buy an infantry and artillery- 2 hit shots with an attack of 6 and a defense of 6 and not to mention the possibility of air supremacy to bump up the artillery up to 7/7.

All that versus 1 single tank at 6IPCs, with equal movement, no air supremacy bonus, attack at 2 and defense at 1 and to compensate all the tank gets is a single soak hit.

I could run some other combos and I do realize that I may be getting ahead of myself but the initial numbers don’t seem to make sense.

Am I really missing something here???  If I am, PLEASE Kreighund or somebody enlighten me… :?