The Med is controlled by the USN with no real threat so the US can take its units in France and dump them to support UK.
German IPCs
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Can someone explain to me how people are getting 68 income on G2. That doesn’t make sense to me.
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30(base) + 19(France loot) + 2(Finland) + 1(Bulgaria) + 2(Yugo) + 4(France) + 5(NO Peace with Russia) + 5(NO Norway, Denmark) = 68
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30(base) + 19(France loot) + 2(Finland) + 1(Bulgaria) + 2(Yugo) + 4(France) + 5(NO Peace with Russia) + 5(NO Norway, Denmark) = 68
Thank you! I didn’t realize that Germany got those 19 points from France. So for example if Germany takes London on G3 does Germany get all those points as well? (I think it’s something like 28)
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Man up and G1 Normandy Bordueax and Southern France. Thats another 5.
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Man up and G1 Normandy Bordueax and Southern France. Thats another 5.
Not worth a weaker France attack IMO to get both turn 1. If France rolls well… uh oh.
Also French ships convoy Germany when they collect the $3 for Southern France. Good chance you don’t fully collect for it.
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30(base) + 19(France loot) + 2(Finland) + 1(Bulgaria) + 2(Yugo) + 4(France) + 5(NO Peace with Russia) + 5(NO Norway, Denmark) = 68
Thank you! I didn’t realize that Germany got those 19 points from France. So for example if Germany takes London on G3 does Germany get all those points as well? (I think it’s something like 28)
Yes they do but just to clarify, its a one time situation u get the loot, following turns or if recaptured by axis again its just the regular base IPCs!
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30(base) + 19(France loot) + 2(Finland) + 1(Bulgaria) + 2(Yugo) + 4(France) + 5(NO Peace with Russia) + 5(NO Norway, Denmark) = 68
Thank you! I didn’t realize that Germany got those 19 points from France. So for example if Germany takes London on G3 does Germany get all those points as well? (I think it’s something like 28)
Yes they do but just to clarify, its a one time situation u get the loot, following turns or if recaptured by axis again its just the regular base IPCs!
Are you sure about that? If liberated by an ally, correct there would not be any exchange of bank. But, if the axis then recapture London they would take their bank again.
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Yea your right Ike, there is no one time capital raid. If a capital is liberated, then recaptured the loot is handed over again and again if that power in question has had a turn and a chance to collect income from territories they control (including those that revert back to them liberated by their allies) .
I’ve seen Calcutta get traded a couple of times. UK backs out, Japan takes it (and plunder), then UK units retake it only to lose it to Japan once more who gets to plunder it again. In this case Calcutta wasn’t holding much of a bank (only 4-5 IPCs), so trading it was more to keep the Japanese from using the IC for builds for a round. The thought was if they stepped out, then counter attacked they might also be able to kill off some Japanese ground units w/o air cover depending on how Japan played it. Plus it gave them the option to preserve units to help defend Russia.
This same rule is part of the reason you rarely see Paris get liberated, it is really two fold and some feel a flaw in game play. They have dangled an NO for the US to lib it, but I think it still falls a bit short.
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If the allies liberate Paris, they (US) no longer get to use the coastal ICs
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If Paris is liberated, and the Germans re-capture it they get to plunder the French reserves again, and this could be 10-12 IPCs depending on the territories the French still control.
Once the allies get a strong hold on the French beaches the axis rarely defend Paris very well because it could be better to trade it (they will stack W Germany). The allies need to make damn sure that if they liberate Paris, they won’t lose it to counter attack giving the Germans extra IPCs for their war effort.
Consider this because of turn order, say the US liberates Paris, and the UK joins them with ground and air units for cover. Italy probably won’t try to retake Paris at this time (as if they could anyway lol), because the French haven’t had a turn yet and didn’t collect income (nothing to plunder). So Italy takes a pass (might hit & run to weaken it), leaving it for Germany because the French got to collect income in between. So tell me, were the Italians that inferior to where they couldn’t find out where the French hid their new reserves (he he)?
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True, my bad! I mixed it up with liberating! :roll:
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