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AAG40 FAQ
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Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct?yes. If Germany captured the final city, and at the start of Germany’s next turn victory conditions are still met, the game is over.
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Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct?Not at the end of a round, but a round after the victory conditions are initially met.
If Italy takes over Egypt for the last city on I12, then the Axis haven’t won until I13, and then only if they never dipped below 8 victory cities between I12 and I13 at any time.
The Axis does not win after France’s round 12 (the end of round 12). -
Global noob question #66
Once VC conditions are met on one side (Europe or Pacific) at the end of a round, the game is over period, correct?Not at the end of a round, but a round after the victory conditions are initially met.
If Italy takes over Egypt for the last city on I12, then the Axis haven’t won until I13, and then only if they never dipped below 8 victory cities between I12 and I13 at any time.
The Axis does not win after France’s round 12 (the end of round 12).hummmm… I suppose I incorrectly thought that if in your example, if UK captured something but Germany captured it back, that the game was still over on I13 as conditions were still met. you’re probably right.
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I’m glad you posted that
I really wasn’t 100% sure because the wording is ambiguous
“The Axis wins by controlling either any 8 victory cities on the Europe map or any 6 victory cities on the Pacific map for a complete round of play, as long as they control an Axis capital at the end of that round”So because it says “for a complete round of play”, then “at the end of that round” must mean at the end of a complete round of play, not after France’s turn…
But this wording does not specify whether you can ever dip below 8 (6) during that complete round.
However, when I previously stated on this thread that the Axis could NOT dip below (because it says you must control 8 (6) cities FOR A COMPLETE ROUND of play) Krieghund never came on and said I was wrong.So the rule is actually that the Axis must MAINTAIN CONSTANT CONTROL of 8 (6) or more cities THROUGHOUT one complete round of play (from G to G, J to J, or I to I) at ALL TIMES.
Note that it wouldn’t have to be the same 8 (6)!
Example:
Axis control Paris, Berlin, Rome, Moscow, Stalingrad, Leningrad, Warsaw.
On I15, the Italians take Egypt (8th city). � The “timer” starts.
On G16, the Germans take London (9th city).
On R16, the Russians liberate Stalingrad (back down to 8.)
On J16, the Japanese take Ottawa (up to 9 again)
On US16, the USA liberates Ottawa (back to 8.)
On UK16, the UK liberates London (Axis down to 7)
On I16, Italy re-captures London (Axis back up to 8.)The Axis HAVEN’T WON yet!
They did not control 8 cities for (throughout) one complete round of play. The “timer” would start all over on I16 again, and the Axis have to maintain 8 cities at all times until I17. If the UK does NOT liberate London or any other city on UK16, then the Axis would win when reaching I16.If I’m wrong, Krieghund should correct this.
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You are 100% correct.
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Ok, I figured there was some difference between that and 42, but then again, I never really played VC for 42…This helps a lot!
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Confused about transporting allies
Pored over the transport rules in the rulebook again, but not satisfied I know the answer to this question:I have 2 USA transports in Z110. They are loaded with a UK AA on each and a French infantry on another, so there is one open infantry slot.
Is it legal on UK’s noncombat to load 1 infantry onto the one transport that has an open slot, and also unload the 2 AA guns onto France? So can you load one unit and unload another involving the same allied transport in a non-combat move?
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Confused about transporting allies
Pored over the transport rules in the rulebook again, but not satisfied I know the answer to this question:I have 2 USA transports in Z110. They are loaded with a UK AA on each and a French infantry on another, so there is one open infantry slot.
Is it legal on UK’s noncombat to load 1 infantry onto the one transport that has an open slot, and also unload the 2 AA guns onto France? So can you load one unit and unload another involving the same allied transport in a non-combat move?
yes
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OK, thanks
Yeah, I couldn’t find anything disallowing it, but I couldn’t find anything that said it was OK for sure, either
Global presents these situations more often - I don’t think I’ve ever bridged allied units with half-loaded transports… -
Oh, I do have a follow up question then.
I couldn’t unload a UK AA from an American transport and also load that transport up with TWO UK units, right? Because you couldn’t do that with your own….
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Oh, I do have a follow up question then.
I couldn’t unload a UK AA from an American transport and also load that transport up with TWO UK units, right? Because you couldn’t do that with your own….
No. Each slot can only be used by a single unit per turn - (plus restrictions by phase - in a transport is used during com an empty slot cannot be loaded or unloaded during non com)
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Right - because once a transport unloads, it is always DONE for the rest of that power’s turn.
Thanks! Â I’m going to pencil this into my rulebook - that you can load a unit onto an ally’s transport and also unload a previously loaded unit from that same transport in your non-com phase.
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Alpha3 SBR question
After the air war, must ALL tacs and bombers be assigned targets?
That is, can tacs, bombers be sent on SBR missions just for the air war or to deter defending fighters from even leaving the ground?
To avoid AA fire, can some of them just return home and not be assigned targets?
In other words, can Strat bombers and/or tacs basically be used as escorts for other tac bombers/Strats? -
Alpha3 SBR question
After the air war, must ALL tacs and bombers be assigned targets?
That is, can tacs, bombers be sent on SBR missions just for the air war or to deter defending fighters from even leaving the ground?
To avoid AA fire, can some of them just return home and not be assigned targets?
In other words, can Strat bombers and/or tacs basically be used as escorts for other tac bombers/Strats?They cannot be sent if they don’t have a legitimate target. You don’t have to declare what the target is until after interception is over, but it still needs a target that meets the requirements of the bomber (naval/airbase for tac, any ol’ thang for strats). And after interception, even if it went unreasonably bad and you want to avoid AA, you can’t. you’re very committed to the cause. I consider it similar to an amphibious assault with bombardment more or less equivalent to the interception phase… Bombardment might suck, but your boats are still putting the boots on the ground. Similarly, interception might suck and hit half your wing, but you’re already diving/flying over the facilities and the AA is on its way up.
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But you can take anything you want for casualties.
I just flew a mission over West Germany with 2 fighters, 2 tacs and 2 bombers
I really only wanted 1 tac to hit the airbase. When I took a hit from 3 interceptors, I lost the tac, so effectively it was an “escort”.Are you sure about your answer? I mean, has Krieghund or Larry clarified this previously that you read? Because the Alpha3 rules as printed don’t say you have to assign all tacs and bombers to targets.
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But you can take anything you want for casualties.
I just flew a mission over West Germany with 2 fighters, 2 tacs and 2 bombers
I really only wanted 1 tac to hit the airbase. When I took a hit from 3 interceptors, I lost the tac, so effectively it was an “escort”.Are you sure about your answer? I mean, has Krieghund or Larry clarified this previously that you read? Because the Alpha3 rules as printed don’t say you have to assign all tacs and bombers to targets.
They can be what I’d call “loophole escorts” and taken as casualties; as you say effectively an escort, but NOT an “escort” as defined by the rules of the game. I’m almost completely 99.5% certain Krieg has weighed in and said once the bombers are sent they’re committed to every phase including AA (and therefore bombing) even if interception sucked. and I’m certain that the rules state that Tacs cannot be sent as “escorts”. So they must be sent against a valid target if they’re going to perform a strategic bombing run. And they cannot be sent against a factory.
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I’m starting to remember him addressing this issue now, yes.
So basically when you get past the escort and interceptor firing and casualties are chosen by each side, then ALL tac bombers and strat bombers MUST be assigned to a target. I’ll pencil that in as well. Would have been nice if he’s written it that way in the first place, but we’re used to it.
It’s not just about how the interception goes.
What if you had 3 strat bombers in range of a minor IC which is defended by a fighter? You really only want one bomber to endure AA because 1 bomber will do 3-6 damage with a 50% chance of maximum 6 damage.It’s unfortunate that you can’t send all 3 bombers to keep the fighter on the ground or increase your chances of shooting it down if it defends, and to protect a single bomber for the mission.
I suppose it was all calculated in when granting the strat bombers the +2 and letting tacs strat bomb bases. Rules are rules, they don’t have to make sense. I’ll pencil it in so I don’t forget again…
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hi evryone.question bout scrambling.how can a player scramble to a hostile sea zone(containing enemy surface warships,that where there at the start of his turn)and be considered defending the sea zone.its already hostile.?i had10 allied war ships in sz6,came in later w/another allies ship&the person srambles.since the zone was already hostile the scramble should be considered apre emptivestrike,or attack,not adefense of a already hostile zone.thanks for any light,or understanding anyone can give,veto.
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veto -
Were they attacking anything from Z6?
It’s not about whether a sea zone is hostile or not, it’s all about whether the enemy is conducting any combat, including any amphibious assaults from that sea zone. ANY enemy ships/planes in that sea zone during the combat phase would be fighting the scrambled planes.
If the attacker does not want ships to be stuck in that zone in the event of a scramble, they can and must move those ships away from that sea zone where the scramble could happen in the combat movement phase, even if that movement does not result in combat. See page 13 of Europe manual.If you’re not sure what I’m saying or still have questions, please ask follow up questions
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Where can I find the correct set up for the Nuetrals? Minor Threats cards are awesome but I don’t see anything for the Nuetrals. Weren’t some of the infantry in S America increased from 2 to 4?
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