This has already been discussed and asked in the FAQ. However your one word answer did not really address the question we needed answered.
The rulebook seems to contradict itself. I’m trying to wrap my head around this, but it does not seem like both of these statements can be true at the same time. Either the rules need to be clarified better or one of them is wrong.
PG16
However, a transport
is not allowed to offload land units for an amphibious
assault in a sea zone containing 1 or more ignored enemy
submarines unless at least 1 warship belonging to the
attacking power is also present in the sea zone at the end
of the Combat Move phase.
Seems to indicate that any warship, including a carrier with 0 attack, can escort a transport for the purposes of an amphibious assault when an enemy sub is present.
PG32
This means that a transport can�t fire
in the attacking units� or the defending units� fire steps.
Transports may not attack without being accompanied
by at least 1 unit with an attack value, unless they are
conducting an amphibious assault from a friendly sea
zone that is free of enemy submarines.
Seems to indicate that carriers are not an acceptable escort for transports for the purposes of an amphibious assault when an enemy sub is present.
Unless the rules are talking generalities first and then it drills into the specifics, these passages SEEM to be mutually exclusive. So please say if the following situation is a legal amhpibious assault within the context of the rules.
Enemy sub in sz42 - attacker brings in a loaded transport accompanied by ONLY carrier(s) of the same nation in order to conduct an amphibious assault on Java