By virtue of a crack performance by British forces in North Africa to drive Italy off the continent, the three French troops made a long march to Persia as the Brit’s worked up the Caucasus. After an all or nothing attack by the British on Germany’s main army group at Volgograd (destroying all but one fighter and loosing all in the gambit), the French blocking forces are now able to seize Kazakhstan.
That is where my brain got stuck between gears, as neither France, nor Russia control their respective capitals.
You may understand the question coming, and I may know the answer, but appreciate any feedback as I’ve viewed but never join this forum for years until today.
Question: Does the territory become French?
My analysis says, yes.
Question behind the question: Is it tactically sound to do so?
My analysis says, no. Since the French cannot collect IPC, it would be wiser to let the British capture it, to get the IPC gain which can be delivered to the battlefield in a turns time.
Thoughts, feelings, and many musings appreciated!