This topic has been moved to Player Help.
Player Help
http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=9657.0Is not related to Revised.
Is this move legal???
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lets say Germany has 1 tra in East Med, 1 tra in Red Sea and 1 inf in India
Germany controls Anglo Egypt-Sudan but the allies have Trans-Jordan in possesion with 1 UK inf-i attack Trans-Jordan with 1 inf from India(using the Red Sea tra), and i send aircraft to that battle and i won in Trans-Jordan with 1 inf
-so can i then attack Kenya using the tra in East Med, beacuse now i control the canal
so what i want to say is that can i when i am declaring my attacks, say that i ll attack Trans-Jordan and that i will attack Kenya if the first battle goes well, like when attacking Anglo-Egypt on ËGermany 1Ë when there is a destroyer present in the waters and the tra cant unload until the destroyer is defeated; but the attack on Anglo-Egypt can be pronounced altough it is maybe never going to happen
thanks :-)
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No you can´t do this these attacks happen at the same time and you (or Japan) have got to control the canal at the beginning of your turn to move through it.
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All combat movement is one phase so the attacking ships would have to move during combat movement. The canal is closed during combat movement so as mentioned this would not be legal.
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Use of canals is based on ownership of territories at the START of your move.
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@ncscswitch:
Use of canals is based on ownership of territories at the START of your move.
And would still be closed during Non-combat.
My post suggests that it would be open during Non-combat on a re-take or take of both EGY and TJD.
Good catch. -
Correct…
If your side owns Panama at the START of your move (just before you do “purchase units”) then you can use it. The same is true for Suez if your side controls BOTH T-J and Egypt.
If your side does NOT control both sides at the time you purchase units, you cannot traverse Suez at any time during your move.