@ragnell804 All hits must be applied. The transport is destroyed. If the Ottomans had scored only 1 hit, the Italians could have broken off the attack and saved the transport, at least for the time being.
Axis and Allies 1914 FAQ/Question and Answer Thread
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Bill, you still don’t get how Professor Chapman’s Patent Russian Force Fields work.
If Holland is attacked the Allies nominate Russia as the controlling power of Holland. It does not matter if all the Russian units in Holland are eliminated, if the Allies hold Holland it remains under Russian control, and as the rules are written it is therefore immune to CP attack after the revolution.
There is no mention in the rules of Constantinople and SZ 20. They are just a normal capital land tt and a single sea zone.
The Suez canal operates as expected, with Egypt blocking movement of enemy ships.
I see what you’re saying, and the rules do need to be clarified here that’s for sure. There is also a one liner it the RR rules that says “effectively removing Russia from the war and the game”. Once all Russian units out side of the Motherland are removed you would have to suspect the intent was to also give up control of said territory. Again you’re right it doesn’t spell it out for us, but their intent (if it even came up in testing) can’t be to set up untouchable allied territories, so this will be addressed very soon (hopefully before the game hit the US). If not by time the game hits my table then I guess common sense will have to prevail. There is no way the CP would sign a deal to allow the Russians to hold onto lands gained in the the war (especially un-garrisoned) in say Turkey (or Holland as funny as that sounds).
One other question/point I have is that the 3rd point of the RR rule says:
*Moscow is controlled by the Russians or contested.
So if the CP don’t meet the criteria for the Russians to revolt because they went straight for the throat (got Moscow instead of acquiring the other points) then the Russians won’t revolt and withdraw from the war, but could effectively be out of the game anyway like any other AA global game (interesting). The Russians could actually lose Moscow, get it back, then be forced into a revolution. I wonder what strat the CP (or allies) will develop here?
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Forgive me if I missed it….can USA land units in a allied or minor allied Tt while neutral…and in general can a allied power (usa for ex.)move or land into a different powers alligned minor Tt (like portagul)…
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Can the US be chosen to represent forces in Switzerland if it is attacked on turn 1, if so is that an attack on the US and put them at war with the CP?
Also, what happens to allied units in Russia after a revolution. How do they get out?
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I have a question about activating/mobilizing a friendly minor power that is aligned to one of your allies.
Lets say Belgium (which is aligned w/France) hasn’t been attacked yet. I know that the French can move in to activate Belgium on Frances turn, but if France doesn’t bring them into the game, can the English move in to activate it and you place French units in Belgium?
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Like I said, the Russian Revolution rules need a complete rewrite to make any sense.
Another thing I’d change is that the Revolution can occur at any time; if it only happens at the end of the Russian turn, its an open invitation for the Allies to gerrymander the revolution in their own interests, especially if Moscow does not count for victory purposes if still Russian controlled or contested.
Note that its perfectly possible for a country to lose tts (including the capital) on their own turn by withdrawing from contested tts.
In fact, for this reason, I’d make it that the Revolution only occurs at the end of a CP player’s turn.The USA controlling minors while neutral is another ambiguity; and as far as I can tell in the case of aligned neutrals, only the “big brother” power can move units in.
Therefore, Germany can move units into French Equatorial Africa (to attack), but the UK cannot move pieces in to defend, even though its an Allied-aligned neutral.
It also seems strange that Germany can attack Portuguese East Africa without triggering war with Portugal. In effect, then, Portuguese and Belgian colonies are non-aligned neutrals with no defending units, except that only the CPs may attack them.
It isn’t even clear if France is allowed to move units into them without first having activated their capital.to quote one line from the rule book:
“…the ally who originally mobilized in Holland would most likely gain Holland’s 2 IPCs if the tt ends up in their control.”
Well, would they or wouldn’t they? Are we supposed to make up the rules as we play?
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What is the status of the US navy before declaring war?
If their ships sail into SZs contested by the warring powers are they able to participate in naval combat, and under what circumstances?
Say the US BB shares a tt with a French cruiser. A German cruiser moves in. Can the German ship:
1. Attack the French ship only, ignoring the (neutral) US BB?
2. Attack the US ship only, ignoring the French one (or must we assume that the US is at war the moment it is attacked, therefore the American and French ships defend together?)
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If the Ottoman Empire controls Constatinople, but has no naval units in sea zone 20, can a British battleship move freely from sea zone 19 to sea zone 20, where it rolls for mines due to the Ottoman naval base, and then continue on to sea zone 21?
Yes.
The Russian Revolution optional rule is being used. Early in the game Russia had taken control of a neutral Holland upon a German attack and a few turns later was able, with British help, to drive the Germans out of Holland. Russian troops remain in Holland, which is controlled by Russia.
The next turn, the Russian Revolution occurs. Since Holland is Russian controlled, Russian troops remain in Holland, per the Russian Revolution Rules (“All Russian units outside of original Russian territories or Russian-controlled territories are immediately removed from the board, and Russia will no longer have a turn”).
Does this mean that Germany and the other Central Powers may no longer attack Holland?
Yes.
May Allied powers still move freely through Holland?
Yes.
Once a particular power has been nominated to control a non-aligned neutral, or an enemy aligned neutral, it remains the nominated nation in that tt for that side for the rest of the game, even if the tt is lost and subsequently recaptured by one of my allies.
No. There is no concept of “nomination to control” - only to defend. Control of minor neutrals is determined purely by whose units are present when control changes sides. See “Taking Control of a Territory” on page 20.
Britain and France are defending in a contested tt. They have 1 infantry each remaining, and take one last hit. If they cannot agree as to who removes the last casualty, the attacking player decides.
Yes. See page 22.
@WILD:
“All Russian units outside of original Russian territories or Russian-controlled territories are immediately removed from the board, and Russia will no longer have a turn”
Why is this statement so confusing (guess it needs clarification though), after the Revolution happens the intent pertains to removing all Russian units outside of orig Russian territories.
What’s confusing about it? Russian units that are in original Russian territories or Russian-controlled territories remain on the board. Russian units that are in territories outside of Russia that are either contested or controlled by other Allied powers are removed.
@WILD:
This would include both types of territories possible where Russia might have units outside of original Russian tt.
- Territories that Russia is contesting with the enemy out side of orig Russian tt.
Yes, these are removed.
@WILD:
- Territories that Russia has control of out side of original Russian territories. This would include Holland (if awarded the Russians), or any other territory that the Russians might have gained control of outside of orig Russian tt. It would also include both Serbia and Romania because they are not original Russian territories, they are minor powers aligned w/Russia.
No, these stay.
@WILD:
The rule also goes on to say the CP is allowed to move in and out of original Russian territories that are controlled, or contested by the CP. The CP would have to leave an inf unit in a contested Russian territory though. The CP would continue to collect income from orig Russian tt they control, but I don’t think they have to leave an inf in those tt.
Correct.
Bill, you still don’t get how Professor Chapman’s Patent Russian Force Fields work.
Apparently, neither do you.
If Holland is attacked the Allies nominate Russia as the controlling power of Holland. It does not matter if all the Russian units in Holland are eliminated, if the Allies hold Holland it remains under Russian control, and as the rules are written it is therefore immune to CP attack after the revolution.
If Holland is attacked, the Allies nominate Russia as the defending power. If the Central Powers take Holland and the Allies regain control, whichever Allied power regains control will have control of it. Original control only applies to original territories. See page 20 of the Rulebook.
However, if Russia happens to be the controlling power when the revolution occurs, Holland would indeed be off limits to the Central Powers.
@WILD:
I see what you’re saying, and the rules do need to be clarified here that’s for sure. There is also a one liner it the RR rules that says “effectively removing Russia from the war and the game”. Once all Russian units out side of the Motherland are removed you would have to suspect the intent was to also give up control of said territory.
Nope. Russia gets to keep any territories it controls.
Can the US be chosen to represent forces in Switzerland if it is attacked on turn 1, if so is that an attack on the US and put them at war with the CP?
No. The US must be at war to be selected as the defending power. This will be in the FAQ.
Also, what happens to allied units in Russia after a revolution. How do they get out?
The same way as ever - they walk.
@WILD:
I have a question about activating/mobilizing a friendly minor power that is aligned to one of your allies.
Lets say Belgium (which is aligned w/France) hasn’t been attacked yet. I know that the French can move in to activate Belgium on Frances turn, but if France doesn’t bring them into the game, can the English move in to activate it and you place French units in Belgium?
Yes. The rules say “When the capital of a minor aligned power is entered by land units of a major power, whether friendly or enemy, the minor power’s forces are represented by pieces of the major power with which it’s aligned.” It is not specified that it must be the aligned major power.
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Thanks Krieg- I always appreciate the hard work!
The only thing is- why wouldn’t the Allies always have Russia take control of any neutral power that the CP’s attack, since in the event that revolution occurs, if said neutral territory is still russian controlled, the CPs cannot ever attack it?
So if Russia takes Istanbul, and gets put into Revolution then the CPs can not liberate the Ottoman Capital? This would be kind of gamey for the CP- they would back off of Russia so they could liberate Istanbul before Revolution occurs.
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Thanks Kreighund! :-)
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The only thing is- why wouldn’t the Allies always have Russia take control of any neutral power that the CP’s attack, since in the event that revolution occurs, if said neutral territory is still russian controlled, the CPs cannot ever attack it?Â
Let’s use Holland as an example again. The advantage of having Russia defend it is that if the Central Powers are pushed out and Russia ends up controlling it (this depends on a lot of factors, see pages 15, 19, and 20), it will be off limits if the revolution occurs. The advantage of having a more local power, France for instance, defend it is that the defending units will be controlled by a power that has other units in the area that can attack along with those units if need be. It depends on the situation and the players involved.
So if Russia takes Istanbul, and gets put into Revolution then the CPs can not liberate the Ottoman Capital? This would be kind of gamey for the CP- they would back off of Russia so they could liberate Istanbul before Revolution occurs.
That situation could occur, but I think it’s highly unlikely. Of course, it’s always possible for the Central Powers to purposely avoid revolution if they want to.
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Thanks for the answers Krieg- I imagine if Revolution is triggered, there aren’t many Russian controlled neutrals anymore- Why would we pick Russia for Holland when it can be France or England collecting that money?
Romania may be the only non original territory that becomes off limits (due to proximity to Russia and likelihood of Russia controlling it) when Revolution occurs.
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The last point is why I would think about moving the revolution to the end of a CP player’s turn. There are ways the Allies can manipulate the rule to gain an advantageous revolution, especially since Krieghund has confirmed that Moscow only counts towards CP victory conditions if it is controlled by the CPs.
You have to ask why the Germans would drive all that way into Russia to be robbed of their ultimate victory goal.
I might also consider that, if this does occur, Germany gets some free infantry to represent POWs released from Russian camps. Otherwise why go anywhere near Moscow, and why give the Allies free Force Fields in the West?
Another question; can the UK freely move forces into Belgian and Portuguese colonies before the respective capital is activated?
Say Germany captures Angola. The the UK liberates it - does France get the Angola income even if Portugal has not been activated?
Can I assume from the above answers then that the UK can transport an infantry into Albania and activate that country (along with its 4 units) before Italy has even had a turn? I haven’t played it that way; would have made a difference in Allied strategy.
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Which territory has force fields? As in, which one is likely?
I suppose if the CP’s are going to attack a neutral that could be given to Russia they should either thoroughly destroy the defenders and take the territory before they trigger revolution.
There are not too many neutrals that are ‘must attack’ by the CP, so maybe this won’t come up very often.
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You have to ask why the Germans would drive all that way into Russia to be robbed of their ultimate victory goal.
That depends on the Germans. There are ways for both sides to manipulate the conditions of the Russian revolution.
Another question; can the UK freely move forces into Belgian and Portuguese colonies before the respective capital is activated?
Yes.
Say Germany captures Angola. The the UK liberates it - does France get the Angola income even if Portugal has not been activated?
No, the United Kingdom does. Only territories originally controlled by a major power are liberated. See page 20.
Can I assume from the above answers then that the UK can transport an infantry into Albania and activate that country (along with its 4 units) before Italy has even had a turn?
Yes.
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_Say Germany captures Angola. The the UK liberates it - does France get the Angola income even if Portugal has not been activated?
No, the United Kingdom does. Only territories originally controlled by a major power are liberated. See page 20._
Does that include Belgium? Or, do we consider that when Belgium was attacked and the French mobilized units to defend it, that country was first (and therefore originally) controlled by France?
Or does “originally” in this sense specifically mean at the start of the game. -
Rulebook, page 15:
“Land units that begin the turn in contested territories can only be moved to territories that are controlled by your power, or to territories that are also contested and already contain units belonging to your power. If they are moved by transport, they may also remain at sea.”
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Austria-Hungary invaded Venice on turn 1, making it contested. On its turn, Italy pulls back to Tuscany, leaving 1 infantry unit in a still contested Venice. On Turn 2, can the Austro-Hungarian army leave some units in contested Venice and march the rest into Tuscany to be supported by an amphibious assault on Tuscany that does not require sea combat?
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Lorraine is contested and contains French and German troops. Picardy is contested and contains British, French, and German troops. On its turn could Britain move troops directly from Picardy to Lorraine?
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Romania is contested and contains Ottoman and Russian troops. Galicia is contested and contains German, Austro-Hungarian and Russian troops. Budapest is uncontested and contains Austro-Hungarian troops. Could Austria-Hungary move troops from Budapest into Romania and then move troops from Galicia to Romania on the same turn?
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I’m still a little confused by movement from contested tts into other contested tts:
(page 15)
Land units that begin the turn in contested tts can be moved… into tts that are also contested and already contain units that belong to your power.
Does this include those tts which have only become contested during the current movement turn?
Another situation I have is:
Venice is contested. Italy wishes to leave just one unit there and pull the rest back to Tuscany, which it controls.
If Austria on its turn amphibious assaults Tuscany from SZ 18, does this entitle Austria to move units from contested Venice through into Tuscany? Or in this case do we assume that because the assault has not taken place yet (even though there is no sea battle) Tuscany is not yet contested?
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- Austria-Hungary invaded Venice on turn 1, making it contested. On its turn, Italy pulls back to Tuscany, leaving 1 infantry unit in a still contested Venice. On Turn 2, can the Austro-Hungarian army leave some units in contested Venice and march the rest into Tuscany to be supported by an amphibious assault on Tuscany that does not require sea combat?
No. Tuscany was not contested at the beginning of Austria-Hungary’s turn.
- Lorraine is contested and contains French and German troops. Picardy is contested and contains British, French, and German troops. On its turn could Britain move troops directly from Picardy to Lorraine?
No. Lorraine did not contain British units at the beginning of Britain’s turn.
- Romania is contested and contains Ottoman and Russian troops. Galicia is contested and contains German, Austro-Hungarian and Russian troops. Budapest is uncontested and contains Austro-Hungarian troops. Could Austria-Hungary move troops from Budapest into Romania and then move troops from Galicia to Romania on the same turn?
No. Romania did not contain Austro-Hungarian units at the beginning of Austria-Hungary’s turn.
I’m still a little confused by movement from contested tts into other contested tts:
(page 15)
Land units that begin the turn in contested tts can be moved… into tts that are also contested and already contain units that belong to your power.
Does this include those tts which have only become contested during the current movement turn?
No.
Another situation I have is:
Venice is contested. Italy wishes to leave just one unit there and pull the rest back to Tuscany, which it controls.
If Austria on its turn amphibious assaults Tuscany from SZ 18, does this entitle Austria to move units from contested Venice through into Tuscany?
No. (Is there an echo in here?)
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We need to know if its safe for Italy to run away.
Thanks for your answers.
Still waiting on the American fleet questions above, if you can help.
Also, is it correct that if a tt with a SZ is enemy (i.e. not the original side) controlled the mines have no effect on either side?
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