I could never find a clear ruling on this in the guidebook, the official FAQ and the topics here haven’t helped either. After a plane conducts combat does it…
-have 1 movement point to reach a legal landing spot
-have the remaining movement points from the combat move phase to land
-have its initial movement allowance refreshed to land
Also, does the landing occur immediately after combat (guidebook) or after end of non combat phase (online faq and rules errata)
-have the remaining movement points from the combat move phase to land.
So if a fighter moves 2 spaces to get into combat, it can move 2 more to land.
and does that “landing” have to be carried out directly after combat or can you wait until right before you mobilize units?
Technically, they have to move to a legal landing space immediately after combat. However, many people wait until the noncombat movement phase to move all of their planes at once.
When the FAQ refers to the “landing” of planes, it means actually touching down, not moving to the space where they will land. For instance, a fighter could move into a sea zone after combat and then “hover” there until a carrier also moves there in the noncombat movement phase, at which point the fighter would land on the carrier. If the carrier were unable to reach the sea zone for some reason (an intervening hostile sea zone failed to be cleared), the fighter would have nowhere to land at the end of the noncombat movement phase, and it would be lost.
Wow that REALLY reduces the power of my aircraft. I was playing using the movement value of aircraft as a “operational range” value (eg. 4/6 regions to and from the battle). Darn, now my bombers in the UK can’t hit any good non-AA guarded regions in Europe, oh well.
CharlyS
check out www.gametableonline.com, you can play A&A Revised there for free (vs the AI). Play a few games, to get a feel for how the rules are applied. That’s how i learned to play the game, and definitely helped me become a better A&A player.
hope this helps. =)
Thanks for the link, but if I may impose upon you guys for nother clarification?
I played my first start to finish revised edition game just a few weeks ago, and a critial part in the defeat was a suprise capture of Germany (a defending navy of 1 battleship and 6 uboats was eliminated with no British casualties) I knew about the skipping of all phases other than combatmove, combat, and noncombat move. But I was unaware of the reappropriation of all IPCs held by the country. In addition we interpreted the rule as after liberation, no troops could be purchased until the second purchase units phase.
Did we play correctly?
Off topic, in the many times I have played the first couple turns of AaA, Germany has never taken Egypt. Do you guys also have this happen? From this forum it seems that the allies usually lose both Egypt and India, when the opposite happens with my games
But I was unaware of the reappropriation of all IPCs held by the country.
I’m not sure what you mean by this.
In addition we interpreted the rule as after liberation, no troops could be purchased until the second purchase units phase.
Units may be purchased as soon as the liberated power has IPCs during its Purchase Units phase. This will generally not happen until its second turn after liberation, but there are rare exceptions.
But I was unaware of the reappropriation of all IPCs held by the country.
I’m not sure what you mean by this.
I mean all unspent IPCs went to the conquering nation. GB more than doubled its income that turn
Yes, losing your capital can be quite painful.
You have quickly thought up such matchless phrase?
